Computer [Computer Networks (15) + DBMS (20) + Software Project Management (20) + Software Engineering (20) + Computer Fundamentals (20) + OOP Using C++ (20)] — 14 Aug 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 115

Normally, WiFi signal reach m distance.

A 50 to 100m B 1 to 2m C 0.5 to 1.0m D 2 to 3m

Computer Networks

Q2 / 115

TCP/IP port number 69 is assigned for .

A telnet B simple mail transfer protocol (smtp) C file transfer protocol protocol (ftp) D trivial file transfer protocol (tftp)

Computer Networks

Q3 / 115

A cable break in which topology stops all transmission

A Mesh B Bus C Star D Primary

Computer Networks

Q4 / 115

In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.

A byte-oriented B bit-oriented C either (a) or (b) D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q5 / 115

Usually, telnet connection is established using command followed by name of host.

A ftp B telnet C ping D ls

Computer Networks

Q6 / 115

In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A next-hop B network-specific C host-specific D default

Computer Networks

Q7 / 115

IPS in firewall stands for .

A intrusion protection system B intrusion prevention software C internet prevention system D intrusion prevention system

Computer Networks

Q8 / 115

An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

A socket B pipe C port D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q9 / 115

If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A the destination IP address in the datagram header B the IP address of the router found in the routing table C either a or b D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q10 / 115

In Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), a packet is encapsulated directly into a

A Data link Integer B data link IP C Data link Station D Data link Frame

Computer Networks

Q11 / 115

A program which runs in the background and sends results requested by a client is called a .

A server B client C port D ip address

Computer Networks

Q12 / 115

The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called

A piggybacking B cyclic redundancy check C fletcher’s checksum D none of the mentioned

Computer Networks

Q13 / 115

Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A process-to-process communication B host-to-host communication C end-to-end reliable data delivery D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q14 / 115

Differential Manchester and multi line transmission (MLT-3) schemes differ in

A Number of transition rules to encode binary data B Self synchronization C Both a and b D None of the above

Computer Networks

Q15 / 115

_______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.

A TCP B UDP C IP D none of the above

DBMS

Q16 / 115

Question::chunk(100, function($qs){}) processes

A 100 random rows B All rows at once C Records 100 at a time preventing memory exhaustion D Only first 100 rows

DBMS

Q17 / 115

Which of the following is not a Schema?

A Database Schema B Physical Schema C Critical Schema D Logical Schema

DBMS

Q18 / 115

Strict 2PL holds exclusive locks until

A Lock point B Next operation C Transaction COMMITS or ABORTS D First unlock

DBMS

Q19 / 115

Cartesian product R×S produces

A Only matching tuples B All possible combinations of tuples from R and S C Only distinct tuples D Tuples satisfying a condition

DBMS

Q20 / 115

What distinguishes a trivial from a non-trivial multivalued dependency?

A Trivial MVDs involve only key attributes B Non-trivial MVDs involve foreign keys C X multidetermines Y is trivial if Y is a subset of X or X union Y equals the entire attribute set of the relation (trivial MVDs always hold and convey no information) D Trivial MVDs involve more attributes

DBMS

Q21 / 115

What characterizes a transitive dependency in the context of 3NF with a concrete example?

A A dependency expressed in transitive SQL statements B A non-prime attribute Y depending on another non-prime attribute Z which in turn depends on the key X: X to Z to Y where Z is not a superkey - e.g. EmpID to DeptID to DeptName C A dependency between two primary keys across tables D A dependency derived by transitivity from two direct FDs involving only key attributes

DBMS

Q22 / 115

What is inference attack in database security?

A An attack using database error messages to infer schema structure B Combining multiple non-sensitive queries or pieces of information to deduce sensitive information that is not directly accessible; e.g. if a statistical query reveals the average salary of a 1-person department that reveals the single persons salary even if individual salary queries are blocked C A brute-force attack on database passwords D An attack by inferring SQL injection vectors

DBMS

Q23 / 115

Which of the following can be used to supplement declarative referential integrity, to enforce complex business rules or to audit changes to data?

A Synonyms B Tables C Triggers D None of the above

DBMS

Q24 / 115

…………………… is the process of organizing data into related tables.

A Normalization B Generalization C Specialization D None of the above

DBMS

Q25 / 115

A view in DBMS primarily provides which level of abstraction?

A Logical level B View/External level C Conceptual level D Physical level

DBMS

Q26 / 115

If every non-key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, the relation will be in

A fourth formal form B third normal form C first normal form D second normal form

DBMS

Q27 / 115

The storage structure which do not survive system crashes are

A volatile storage B non-volatile storage C stable storage D dynamic storage

DBMS

Q28 / 115

Which SQL statement is used to return only different values?

A SELECT DIFFERENT B SELECT UNIQUE C SELECT DISTINCT D SELECT ALL

DBMS

Q29 / 115

A is an explicit numeric, character, string or Boolean value not represented by an identiﬁer.

A comments B literals C delimiters D identiﬁers

DBMS

Q30 / 115

Where performance and reliability are both important, RAID level is used.

B 1 C 2 D 0+1

DBMS

Q31 / 115

What is discretionary access control (DAC) vs mandatory access control (MAC)?

A DAC is stricter than MAC B DAC: resource owners control access permissions (GRANT/REVOKE by object owner) - flexible but owners can grant to anyone. MAC: system-enforced labels on data and users (e.g. TOP SECRET data accessible only by TOP SECRET cleared users) owner cannot override - used in government/defense systems C MAC is less secure than DAC D They provide identical security guarantees

DBMS

Q32 / 115

In magnetic disk stores information on a sector magnetically as reversals of the direction of magnetization of the magnetic material.

A read–write head B read-assemble head C head–disk assemblies D disk arm

DBMS

Q33 / 115

is increasingly being used in server systems to improve performance by caching frequently used data, since it provides faster access than disk, with larger storage capacity than main memory.

A flash memory B disk C main memory D secondary memory

DBMS

Q34 / 115

Which one of the following uniquely identiﬁes the elements in the relation?

A secondary key B primary key C foreign key D composite key

DBMS

Q35 / 115

PL/SQL has two types of subprograms, procedures and functions. Which subprogram isused to compute a value?

A Procedure B Function C Both A & B D None of the above

Software Project Management

Q36 / 115

Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use?

A end-users B client C project (technical) managers D senior managers

Software Project Management

Q37 / 115

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

A a single software configuration management team for the whole organization B a separate configuration management team for each project C software configuration management distributed among the project members D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q38 / 115

Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?

A type of application B distribution of the system C architectural styles D testing the system

Software Project Management

Q39 / 115

Which of the following is not a build system feature?

A minimal recompilation B documentation generation C storage management D reporting

Software Project Management

Q40 / 115

Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go usage model?

A accounting management B compliance C data privacy D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q41 / 115

What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?

A 40-20-40 B 50-20-30 C 30-40-30 D 50-30-20

Software Project Management

Q42 / 115

Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?

A scm procedures B source code C software design descriptions D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q43 / 115

Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?

A base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed B use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation C use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates D the ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

Software Project Management

Q44 / 115

Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?

A efficiency B precision C generality D inclusiveness

Software Project Management

Q45 / 115

What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?

A system building B release management C change management D version management

Software Project Management

Q46 / 115

Which on of the following is not an agile method?

A xp B 4gt C aup D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q47 / 115

Which of these is true ?

A generic products and customized products are types of software products B generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market C customized products are commissioned by particular customer D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q48 / 115

Which of the following can be referred to as applications of Randomized algorithm?

A quicksort B min cut C verifying matrix multiplication D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q49 / 115

Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

A configuration item identification B risk management C release management D branch management

Software Project Management

Q50 / 115

When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called

A priority inversion B priority removal C priority exchange D priority modification

Software Project Management

Q51 / 115

Which of the following is an incorrect method for structural design?

A transition of problem models to solution models B handling of larger and more complex products C designing object oriented systems D more procedural approach

Software Project Management

Q52 / 115

Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version?

A coverage B minimization C safe D maximization

Software Project Management

Q53 / 115

Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

A baselines B source code C data model D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q54 / 115

A view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system.

A physical B logical C process D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q55 / 115

Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?

A physical address and logical address B port address C specific address D all of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q56 / 115

Histogram refers to

A complexity B design C code D software quality

Software Engineering

Q57 / 115

Extent to which a system or component makes efficient use of its data storage space- occupies a small volume.

A Quality measures that address how easily a system can evolve or migrate B Piece of software that acts to accomplish tasks on behalf of its user C A quantitative option analysis that allows the cost of various options to be compu- ted, and options can be compared on objective basis D Extent to which a software system or component allows for or supports anonymous transactions

Software Engineering

Q58 / 115

Who performs the Acceptance Testing?

A retesting B sanity testing C breadth test and depth test D conﬁrmation testing

Software Engineering

Q59 / 115

Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behavior of the system?

A Input and output B Output and input C Destination and source D None of the above

Software Engineering

Q60 / 115

The testing which is done by going through the code is known as,

A White box testing B Black box testing C Gray box testing D None of the above

Software Engineering

Q61 / 115

Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages

A semantic domain B syntactic domain C sequence D set

Software Engineering

Q62 / 115

What is 'non-functional testing' and what makes it fundamentally different from functional testing in scope?

A Non-functional testing only requires manual execution; functional testing can be automated B Non-functional testing verifies quality attributes like performance, security, and usability rather than specific behaviours; it often requires the entire integrated system under realistic load and cannot be decomposed into unit tests C Non-functional testing is performed by end users; functional testing by developers D Non-functional testing only applies after the product is released to production

Software Engineering

Q63 / 115

Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________

A project risks B technical risks C business risks D all of the above

Software Engineering

Q64 / 115

The first operating system developed that used GUI’s was by

A incremental compiler B re-configurable compiler C dynamic compiler D subjective compiler

Software Engineering

Q65 / 115

The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement Specification’s) is called as

A Codeline B Configuration control C Version D Workspace

Software Engineering

Q66 / 115

Goal is

A Maintenance performed to correct faults in hardware or software B A failure of software-controlled systems in convenience, but there are source systems where system failure is resulted in significant critical losses. C Failure that corrupts system state or data D None is true

Software Engineering

Q67 / 115

By collecting during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.

A short-term memory B shortcuts C objects that appear on the screen D all of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q68 / 115

When files are broken up into small parts on a disk they are said to be

A track B table C folder D wallet

Software Engineering

Q69 / 115

The use of design patterns for the development of object-oriented software has important implications for ____________

A context B environment C problem D solution

Software Engineering

Q70 / 115

Embedded systems are

A Compatibility B Compactness C Coding D Communication

Software Engineering

Q71 / 115

Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.

A blackboard B pipe C controller or model D broker

Software Engineering

Q72 / 115

What is the 'capability maturity model integration' (CMMI) and how does it differ from CMM?

A CMMI is a newer version of CMM with identical structure but updated terminology B CMMI integrates multiple CMM models (software, systems, acquisition) into one framework and supports both staged and continuous representations, while CMM was software-specific and staged only C CMMI is used by small companies; CMM was designed for large enterprises only D CMMI replaced CMM because CMM had mathematical errors in its level definitions

Software Engineering

Q73 / 115

In IEEE 830, what does the 'verifiability' property of a good requirement mean?

A Requirement has been verified by at least two senior stakeholders B A cost-effective test, inspection, demonstration, or analysis method must exist that can confirm whether the requirement has been met C Requirement source has been identified and documented D Requirement can be traced to a business objective in the project charter

Software Engineering

Q74 / 115

One of the fundamental characteristics of service-oriented architecture is

A an object that breaks into a system B an object that sends requests to other objects C an object that handles requests sent by other objects D an object that mediates interactions between clients and services

Software Engineering

Q75 / 115

Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).

A programming B design C requirements D planning

OOP Using C++

Q76 / 115

What is the output: regex r("\\\\d+"); string s="abc123def"; smatch m; regex_search(s,m,r); cout<<m[0];

A 123 B abc C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q77 / 115

What is the output: class A{public:virtual int eval()const=0;}; class Const:public A{int v;public:Const(int x):v(x){} int eval()const override{return v;}}; class Mul:public A{A *l,*r;public:Mul(A*a,A*b):l(a),r(b){} int eval()const override{return l->eval()*r->eval();}}; A*e=new Mul(new Const(3),new Mul(new Const(4),new Const(5))); cout<<e->eval();

A 60 B 20 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q78 / 115

What is the output: int x=5; int *p=&x; cout<<**&p;

A Address B 5 C Undefined D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q79 / 115

What is the output: int a=4,b=6; cout<<((a+b)/2)<<' '<<((a+b)>>1);

A 5 5 B 55 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q80 / 115

What is the output: class A{public: int x; void setX(int v){x=v;} int getX(){return x;}}; A a; a.setX(10); cout<<a.getX();

A 10 C Undefined D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q81 / 115

What is 'std::function' and type erasure?

A Wraps any callable with matching signature, hiding concrete type B A function pointer C A virtual function D A lambda only

OOP Using C++

Q82 / 115

What is 'std::complex' operations?

A Arithmetic: +,-,*,/ all defined for complex<T> B Only addition C Only for double D Runtime only

OOP Using C++

Q83 / 115

What is the output: int a[]={1,2,3,4,5}; int b[]={5,4,3,2,1}; cout<<equal(a,a+5,b);

B 1 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q84 / 115

What is the output: template<typename T> T clamp(T v,T lo,T hi){return v<lo?lo:v>hi?hi:v;} cout<<clamp(5,1,10)<<clamp(15,1,10)<<clamp(-5,1,10);

A 5101 B Compile error C Undefined D 5 10 1

OOP Using C++

Q85 / 115

What is the output: for(int i=0;i<5;i++) if(i%3==0) cout<<i;

A 03 C 3 D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q86 / 115

Which of these correctly initializes all elements to zero?

A int arr[5]; B int arr[5] = {}; C int arr[5] = {0}; D Both B and C

OOP Using C++

Q87 / 115

What is 'function template argument deduction'?

A Compiler deducing template args from function arguments B Manually specifying template arguments C Runtime type deduction D Only works with auto

OOP Using C++

Q88 / 115

What is 'std::to_chars' vs 'std::to_string'?

A to_chars: no allocation, faster; to_string: allocates string B Same performance C to_string is faster D to_chars throws

OOP Using C++

Q89 / 115

What is a 'smart pointer' in C++?

A A pointer with automatic memory management B A pointer to a class C A faster raw pointer D A compile-time pointer

OOP Using C++

Q90 / 115

What is the output: class A{public:virtual void f(){cout<<1;}}; class B:public A{public:void f()override{cout<<2;}}; B b; A &r=b; r.f();B &rb=b;rb.f();

A 22 B 12 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q91 / 115

What is the output: class A{int x=0; public: void set(int v){x=v;} int get()const{return x;} void reset(){x=0;}}; A a; a.set(5); a.reset(); cout<<a.get();

B 5 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q92 / 115

What is 'CRTP' (Curiously Recurring Template Pattern)?

A Base class template parameterized with derived class B Recursive template instantiation C Multiple inheritance pattern D Virtual function replacement

OOP Using C++

Q93 / 115

What is the output: class Decorator{function<int(int)> f; public: Decorator(function<int(int)> fn):f(fn){} Decorator add(function<int(int)> g){return {[=](int x){return g(f(x));}};} int call(int x){return f(x);}}; Decorator d{[](int x){return x*2;}}; auto d2=d.add([](int x){return x+1;}); cout<<d2.call(5);

A 11 B 10 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q94 / 115

What is 'NaN' in floating point?

A Not a Number: result of undefined operations like 0.0/0.0 B Negative infinity C Very small number D Zero

OOP Using C++

Q95 / 115

What is the output: queue<int> q; q.push(1);q.push(2);q.push(3); cout<<q.front(); q.pop(); cout<<q.front();

A 12 B 32 C Compile error D Undefined

Computer Fundamentals

Q96 / 115

The read/write head of an HDD floats above the platter at?

A Direct contact B Microscopic distance C Millimeters D Centimeters

Computer Fundamentals

Q97 / 115

CPU cache coherency ensures?

A All caches have same speed B Multiple CPU cores see consistent memory values C Cache is always full D Data is encrypted in cache

Computer Fundamentals

Q98 / 115

DVI connector supports?

A Analog only B Digital (DVI-D), Analog (DVI-A), or Both (DVI-I) C Digital only always D Audio and video

Computer Fundamentals

Q99 / 115

CPU temperature throttling occurs when?

A Temperature is normal B CPU reduces clock speed to prevent damage when threshold is exceeded C Fan is running fast D System starts up

Computer Fundamentals

Q100 / 115

Intrusion Detection System (IDS) does?

A Prevents attacks actively B Monitors and alerts on suspicious activity C Encrypts data D Manages firewall rules

Computer Fundamentals

Q101 / 115

Which of the following is NOT a cloud service model?

A IaaS B PaaS C SaaS D HaaS (Hardware as a Service)

Computer Fundamentals

Q102 / 115

Which component on a motherboard maintains date and time?

A CPU B CMOS + RTC C RAM D Hard disk

Computer Fundamentals

Q103 / 115

Punched cards as input are associated with which generation?

A First and Second B Third and Fourth C Fourth and Fifth D Second and Third

Computer Fundamentals

Q104 / 115

Second generation computers used which high-level language first?

A COBOL B FORTRAN C BASIC D Pascal

Computer Fundamentals

Q105 / 115

OSPF area 0 is called?

A Stub area B Backbone area C NSSA area D External area

Computer Fundamentals

Q106 / 115

Which PowerPoint view shows all slides as thumbnails?

A Normal view B Slide Sorter view C Reading view D Presenter view

Computer Fundamentals

Q107 / 115

filter() function in Python?

A Filters files B Returns elements from iterable where function returns True C Removes duplicates D Cleans data

Computer Fundamentals

Q108 / 115

TIM (Thermal Interface Material) between CPU and cooler?

A Insulates CPU B Fills microscopic gaps to improve heat transfer C Provides electrical connection D Prevents condensation

Computer Fundamentals

Q109 / 115

Which Windows version introduced the Start Menu?

A Windows 3.1 B Windows 95 C Windows XP D Windows NT

Computer Fundamentals

Q110 / 115

Which Windows shortcut opens Run dialog?

A Win+E B Win+R C Win+D D Win+L

Computer Fundamentals

Q111 / 115

Curved monitor benefits include?

A Higher resolution B Reduced eye strain and more immersive viewing C Faster refresh D Lower cost

Computer Fundamentals

Q112 / 115

BitLocker in Windows provides?

A File compression B Full disk encryption C Network security D Antivirus protection

Computer Fundamentals

Q113 / 115

The data bus width determines?

A CPU speed B Amount of data transferred at once C Memory capacity D Hard disk speed

Computer Fundamentals

Q114 / 115

Which wattage PSU for high-end gaming PC?

A 250W B 350W C 450W D 650W-850W

Computer Fundamentals

Q115 / 115

Octal 57 in decimal?

A 47 B 45 C 46 D 48

Submit Test?