Computer [Computer Networks (15) + DBMS (20) + Software Project Management (20) + Software Engineering (20) + Computer Fundamentals (20) + OOP Using C++ (20)] — 08 Aug 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 115

Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A process-to-process communication B host-to-host communication C end-to-end reliable data delivery D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q2 / 115

In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.

A byte-oriented B bit-oriented C either (a) or (b) D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q3 / 115

A program which runs in the background and sends results requested by a client is called a .

A server B client C port D ip address

Computer Networks

Q4 / 115

IPS in firewall stands for .

A intrusion protection system B intrusion prevention software C internet prevention system D intrusion prevention system

Computer Networks

Q5 / 115

Normally, WiFi signal reach m distance.

A 50 to 100m B 1 to 2m C 0.5 to 1.0m D 2 to 3m

Computer Networks

Q6 / 115

The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called

A piggybacking B cyclic redundancy check C fletcher’s checksum D none of the mentioned

Computer Networks

Q7 / 115

A cable break in which topology stops all transmission

A Mesh B Bus C Star D Primary

Computer Networks

Q8 / 115

In Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), a packet is encapsulated directly into a

A Data link Integer B data link IP C Data link Station D Data link Frame

Computer Networks

Q9 / 115

In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A next-hop B network-specific C host-specific D default

Computer Networks

Q10 / 115

Usually, telnet connection is established using command followed by name of host.

A ftp B telnet C ping D ls

Computer Networks

Q11 / 115

_______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.

A TCP B UDP C IP D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q12 / 115

An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

A socket B pipe C port D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q13 / 115

Differential Manchester and multi line transmission (MLT-3) schemes differ in

A Number of transition rules to encode binary data B Self synchronization C Both a and b D None of the above

Computer Networks

Q14 / 115

If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A the destination IP address in the datagram header B the IP address of the router found in the routing table C either a or b D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q15 / 115

TCP/IP port number 69 is assigned for .

A telnet B simple mail transfer protocol (smtp) C file transfer protocol protocol (ftp) D trivial file transfer protocol (tftp)

DBMS

Q16 / 115

Employee assigned one parking space is what cardinality?

A M:N B 1:N C M:1 D 1:1

DBMS

Q17 / 115

What was the name of the ﬁrst commercially available microprocessor chip?

A intel 308 B intel 33 C intel 4004 D motorola 639

DBMS

Q18 / 115

A single further allows the user to be authenticated once, and multiple applications can then verify the user’s identity through an authentication service without requiring reauthentication.

A openid B sign-on system C security assertion markup language (saml) D virtual private database (vpd)

DBMS

Q19 / 115

Undo in recovery

A Redoes committed transactions B Reverses operations of uncommitted transactions to restore consistency C Creates checkpoints D Flushes buffer pool

DBMS

Q20 / 115

ROUND(4.567,2) returns

A 4.5 B 4.56 C 4.57 D 5.0

DBMS

Q21 / 115

A ternary relationship has degree

A 1 B 2 C 3 D N

DBMS

Q22 / 115

What defines how and where data are organized in physical data storage?

A Internal schema B External schema C Conceptual schema D None of the above

DBMS

Q23 / 115

What does DELETE FROM table1 WHERE id IN (SELECT id FROM table2 WHERE condition) accomplish?

A Creates a backup of deleted rows in table2 B Deletes rows from table1 whose id values exist in the result set of the subquery from table2 - a correlated delete that removes specific rows based on data in another table C Deletes rows from table2 where condition is true D Deletes matching rows from both table1 and table2 simultaneously

DBMS

Q24 / 115

A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must:

A be in second normal form (2nf) B be in third normal form (3nf) C have a single attribute key D have a composite key

DBMS

Q25 / 115

Which of the following is true regarding Null Value?

A null<0 B null=0 C null<>0 D null>0

DBMS

Q26 / 115

In the relational model what is the domain of an attribute?

A The range of indexes applied to the attribute B The primary key of the attribute table C The number of distinct values in the attribute column D The set of all permissible/valid values for an attribute defining the data type and any domain constraints

DBMS

Q27 / 115

What is the meaning of LIKE ‘%0%0%’?

A Feature begins with two 0’s B Feature ends with two 0’s C Feature has more than two 0’s D Feature has two 0’s in it, at any position

DBMS

Q28 / 115

What is the SAGA pattern in microservices database architecture?

A It provides connection pooling for microservices B It manages long-running distributed transactions without using 2PC using a sequence of local transactions with compensating transactions C It optimizes query routing in distributed databases D It solves the N+1 query problem

DBMS

Q29 / 115

What is the active-active database cluster and what challenges does it present?

A A cluster that uses active replication for reads only B A cluster where only one node is active at a time C A cluster with active monitoring and automated failover only D A cluster where multiple nodes simultaneously accept read and write operations; challenges include write-write conflicts (two nodes update same row simultaneously), conflict resolution strategies, increased network overhead for synchronization, and consistency vs availability trade-offs

DBMS

Q30 / 115

What is SQL INSERT OR REPLACE (MySQL: REPLACE INTO) and how does it differ from INSERT OR IGNORE?

A REPLACE INTO: if a duplicate key violation occurs deletes the existing row and inserts the new row (auto-increments change); INSERT OR IGNORE: if duplicate key silently ignores the insert and keeps the original row unchanged B Both operations update the existing row C INSERT OR IGNORE replaces the row; REPLACE INTO ignores it D They are identical operations

DBMS

Q31 / 115

What is a deadlock graph visualization and how does it help in diagnosing production deadlock issues?

A A graph showing query execution times B A graph showing database query costs C A graph of database connection patterns D A visual representation of transactions as nodes and lock wait relationships as directed edges; cycles indicate deadlocks; helps identify: which transactions are involved which specific rows/tables are the contention points what SQL statements caused conflicts and patterns suggesting application-level fixes

DBMS

Q32 / 115

which of the following is not an Aggregate function?

A select B avg C min D max

DBMS

Q33 / 115

What is PL/SQL profiling and what tools are available in Oracle for identifying PL/SQL bottlenecks?

A PL/SQL has absolutely no native profiling capabilities built in B Profiling only works for standalone procedures not package subprograms C Profiling is only available through expensive third-party Oracle tools D PL/SQL profiling measures execution time and call counts for each line/procedure in PL/SQL code; Oracle provides DBMS_PROFILER (line-level timing), DBMS_HPROF (hierarchical profiler showing call trees and cumulative times), and PL/SQL Developer/SQL Developer GUI tools that visualize profiling data; essential for identifying slow procedures and optimization targets

DBMS

Q34 / 115

What is edge chasing for distributed deadlock detection?

A A graph traversal for query optimization B An algorithm for detecting missing indexes C Nodes proactively push probe messages along wait-for edges toward the transaction being waited for; if a probe returns to its origin a cycle (deadlock) is detected; avoids the need for a centralized global wait-for graph D Traversing index B-tree edges

DBMS

Q35 / 115

What is the SQL EXPLAIN / EXPLAIN ANALYZE statement used for in query optimization?

A To explain the SQL syntax to beginners B EXPLAIN shows the query execution plan (without executing); EXPLAIN ANALYZE actually executes the query and shows the plan with real timing/row counts - used to diagnose slow queries check index usage identify full table scans C To explain the table structure D To show query syntax errors

Software Project Management

Q36 / 115

Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view?

A module structure B process structure C uses structure D data flow

Software Project Management

Q37 / 115

is the first enemy of communication.

A noise B clarity C politeness D completeness

Software Project Management

Q38 / 115

Cloud are standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its audience.

A svas B slas C sals D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q39 / 115

Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?

A change management B version management C system building D release management

Software Project Management

Q40 / 115

Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?

A efficiency B precision C generality D inclusiveness

Software Project Management

Q41 / 115

Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming?

A an application-composition model B a post-architecture model C a reuse model D an early design model

Software Project Management

Q42 / 115

Which of the following is right dependence relationship?

A performance depends on how strongly components are coupled with other components in system B re-usability depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-component communication and coordination C modifiability depends on system’s modularization D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q43 / 115

What is Cyclomatic complexity?

A black box testing B white box testing C yellow box testing D green box testing

Software Project Management

Q44 / 115

Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers?

A personnel factor B product factor C platform factor D project factor

Software Project Management

Q45 / 115

SPMP stands for

A software project manager’s plan B software project management plan C software product management plan D software product manager’s plan

Software Project Management

Q46 / 115

In which of these interviews, insults are common?

A screening interview B stress interview C behavioural interview D group interview

Software Project Management

Q47 / 115

What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

A function-related metrics B product-related metrics C size-related metrics D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q48 / 115

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

A project planning B project scheduling C project controlling D project being

Software Project Management

Q49 / 115

What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

A customer can respond to each increment B easier to test and debug C it is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early D easier to test and debug & it is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

Software Project Management

Q50 / 115

How many styles are used in a screening interview?

A two B five C three D four

Software Project Management

Q51 / 115

Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?

A people risks B technology risks C estimation risks D organizational risks

Software Project Management

Q52 / 115

Which of the following can be the factor of safety for a dead load?

A 6 B 2 C 4 D 7

Software Project Management

Q53 / 115

Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?

A run chart B bar chart C control chart D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q54 / 115

If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

A winwin spiral model B spiral model C concurrent model D incremental model

Software Project Management

Q55 / 115

Process synchronization can be done on

A hardware level B software level C both hardware and software level D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q56 / 115

The external behavior of a system is described by ___.

A object behavior B class behavior C functions D object & class behavior

Software Engineering

Q57 / 115

In the classical chief programmer team approach, the team member responsible for maintaining the detailed design and coding is

A Logical cohesion B Temporal cohesion C Both A And B D None of these

Software Engineering

Q58 / 115

The most popular microcomputer operating system in use today is

A assign address to all statements in the program B save the values assigned to all labels for use in pass2 C perform some processing of assembler directives D all of these

Software Engineering

Q59 / 115

Out of the following which is not a wait comand

A selenium ide B selenium rc C seleniumgrid D selenium web

Software Engineering

Q60 / 115

Use of Email instead of post & telegraph is due to

A Risk assessment B Reduction of risk C A and B both D None of these

Software Engineering

Q61 / 115

--------- The degree to which the source code provides meaningful documentation.

A Generic Product B Customized product C Product D None of these

Software Engineering

Q62 / 115

Which of the following is not a functional testing technique?

A An error B A fault C A failure D A defect

Software Engineering

Q63 / 115

Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?

A software maintainability. B software functionality. C software development. D a and b.

Software Engineering

Q64 / 115

Risk planning process

A Extent to which a system or component performs a broad range of functions. B The objective of an organization to achieve. C Methods and techniques for converting data to or from graphic display via computers. D None of these

Software Engineering

Q65 / 115

What is the 'interface segregation principle' (ISP) and what problem in large interfaces does it solve?

A ISP requires that all interfaces must be public and accessible from any class in the system B ISP states that clients should not be forced to depend on methods they don't use — large fat interfaces force implementing classes to provide empty or throw-not-implemented implementations, indicating a design smell that should be split into focused interfaces C ISP only applies to abstract factory patterns and similar creational patterns D ISP is identical to OCP and was added to SOLID as a duplicate for clarity

Software Engineering

Q66 / 115

The Pareto analysis is most effective for _________________.

A a, d, c, b B b, d, a, c C c, a, d, b D d, b, c, a

Software Engineering

Q67 / 115

SCM is done to

A Defect. B Coverage Analysis. C Bug. D Audit

Software Engineering

Q68 / 115

During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

A unit testing B blackbox testing C white box testing D regression testing

Software Engineering

Q69 / 115

Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships?

A operations only B attributes only C both (a) and (b) D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q70 / 115

Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review? <br>i. Manager <br>ii. Moderator<br>iii. Scribe / Recorder<br>iv. Assistant Manager

A Incident B Defect C Mistake D Bug

Software Engineering

Q71 / 115

Which of the following is not a part of bug report?

A Threshold by quadrant B Threshold by diagonal quadrant C Threshold based on high impact of the problem D Threshold based on high probability of occurrence of problem

Software Engineering

Q72 / 115

What is 'prototyping' as a requirements elicitation technique and what is its primary risk?

A Creating a detailed architectural design before writing code; risk is over-specification B Building a partial/simulated version to elicit requirements through user interaction; primary risk is stakeholders mistaking the prototype for the final system and resisting necessary rework C Always the cheapest requirements technique and should be used in all projects D Replaces requirements documentation entirely in modern development

Software Engineering

Q73 / 115

GUI means

A verify the security holes in the code B verify the incomplete or broken paths in the code C verify the ﬂow of structure according to the document speciﬁcation D all of these

Software Engineering

Q74 / 115

Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

A system user B client C customers D developers

Software Engineering

Q75 / 115

Which one is not a risk management activity?

A two B three C four D no form exists

OOP Using C++

Q76 / 115

What is 'scoped enum' (enum class)?

A Enum values scoped to enum name; no implicit int conversion B Same as regular enum C A class with enum members D Template enum

OOP Using C++

Q77 / 115

What is the output: try{throw 1;}catch(int i){cout<<i; throw i+1;}catch(int i){cout<<i;}

A 1 B 12 C std::terminate D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q78 / 115

What is the difference between int* const p and const int* p?

A No difference B int* const: pointer is const; const int*: pointee is const C int* const: pointee is const; const int*: pointer is const D Both are compile errors

OOP Using C++

Q79 / 115

What is 'std::underlying_type'?

A Gets underlying integer type of enum B Makes enum an int C A cast D Runtime check

OOP Using C++

Q80 / 115

What is the output: int x=255; cout<<(x&0xF)<<((x>>4)&0xF);

A 1515 B 0F0F C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q81 / 115

What is the output: int f(int x){return x%2?f(x-1)+1:0;} cout<<f(7);

A 4 B 3 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q82 / 115

What is the output: int a[]={3,1,4,1,5}; sort(a,a+5); int *it=lower_bound(a,a+5,1); cout<<(it-a);

B 1 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q83 / 115

What is 'SFINAE' in C++?

A Substitution Failure Is Not An Error B Standard Function Inline And Evaluate C Special Function Implementation Not Allowed Elsewhere D Static Function Initialization And Execution

OOP Using C++

Q84 / 115

What is the output: int f(int& a, int b){ a=10; return a+b; } int x=5; cout<<f(x,x);

A 10 B 15 C 20 D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q85 / 115

What does 'explicit' keyword prevent?

A Implicit single-argument constructor conversion B Copy construction C Virtual dispatch D Template instantiation

OOP Using C++

Q86 / 115

What is the output: int x=4; switch(x>>1){case 0:cout<<'Z';break;case 1:cout<<'O';break;case 2:cout<<'T';break;}

A T B O C Z D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q87 / 115

What is the output: for(int i=0;i<5;i++) {int t=i*i; if(t>10) break; cout<<t;}

A 01491 B 014 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q88 / 115

What is the output: int x=5; cout<<((x%2)+2)%2;

A 1 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q89 / 115

What is the output: int x=5; int y=10; cout<<min(x,y)<<max(x,y);

A 510 B 105 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q90 / 115

What is the output: int x=12; cout<<(x&(x-1));

A 8 B 12 C 4 D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q91 / 115

What is the output: template<typename T> T max(T a,T b){return a>b?a:b;} cout<<max<double>(3,4.5);

A 4.5 B 4 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q92 / 115

What is the output: template<typename T,size_t N> T arraySum(const T(&arr)[N]){T s=T{};for(auto x:arr)s+=x;return s;} int a[]={1,2,3,4,5}; cout<<arraySum(a);

A 15 B 5 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q93 / 115

What is the output: auto p=make_unique<pair<int,int>>(3,4); cout<<p->first+p->second;

A 7 B 12 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q94 / 115

What is 'EBO' (Empty Base Optimization)?

A Empty base class occupies no space in derived class B Optimization for virtual functions C Base class inlining D Eliminating base constructors

OOP Using C++

Q95 / 115

What is the output: template<typename T> T maxOf(T a,T b){return a>b?a:b;} cout<<maxOf(3,7)<<maxOf(2.5,1.5);

A 72.5 B Compile error C Undefined D 3 7

Computer Fundamentals

Q96 / 115

Which command formats a drive in Windows?

A format B delete C clean D erase

Computer Fundamentals

Q97 / 115

Which component is called the heart of the computer?

A CPU B Motherboard C RAM D HDD

Computer Fundamentals

Q98 / 115

SQRT() in Excel?

A Calculates square B Returns square root of a number C Returns squared value D Square feet calculation

Computer Fundamentals

Q99 / 115

AP system in CAP theorem?

A Always consistent B Prioritizes Availability and Partition tolerance — may return stale data C Has no partition tolerance D Is always slow

Computer Fundamentals

Q100 / 115

Which component determines computer speed most?

A RAM size B CPU clock speed and architecture C HDD size D Monitor resolution

Computer Fundamentals

Q101 / 115

Apache Spark is faster than MapReduce because?

A Better hardware B In-memory processing instead of disk I/O between stages C Uses better algorithms always D More nodes

Computer Fundamentals

Q102 / 115

PGA (Pin Grid Array) socket has pins on?

A Motherboard B CPU package C Both D Neither

Computer Fundamentals

Q103 / 115

Which is the fastest sorting algorithm in average case?

A Bubble sort B Quick sort C Merge sort D Selection sort

Computer Fundamentals

Q104 / 115

CPU Core i7-11700K 'K' suffix means?

A Keyboard model B Unlocked multiplier — available for overclocking C Korean version D Kilo variant

Computer Fundamentals

Q105 / 115

System Restore in Windows creates?

A Backup of all files B Restore points to revert system to previous working state C Disk image D User profile backup

Computer Fundamentals

Q106 / 115

Jitter buffer compensates for jitter by?

A Increasing bandwidth B Buffering received packets and playing them at consistent intervals C Retransmitting packets D Increasing MTU

Computer Fundamentals

Q107 / 115

Massive MIMO in 5G uses?

A 4-8 antennas B Hundreds of antennas for beamforming and massive spatial multiplexing C 10 antennas maximum D Fixed antennas only

Computer Fundamentals

Q108 / 115

Which is a private IP address range?

A 192.168.0.0/16 B 8.8.8.8 C 216.58.0.0 D 74.125.0.0

Computer Fundamentals

Q109 / 115

TFTP uses which transport protocol?

A TCP B UDP (port 69) C Both D ICMP

Computer Fundamentals

Q110 / 115

Sublimation printer is used for?

A Standard paper printing B Printing on fabric/mugs using heat-transfer dye C Cardboard printing D Braille output

Computer Fundamentals

Q111 / 115

Spotlight search in macOS is accessed by?

A Finder B Cmd+Space C Cmd+F D Cmd+A

Computer Fundamentals

Q112 / 115

Which shortcut makes text bold in MS Word?

A Ctrl+B B Ctrl+I C Ctrl+U D Ctrl+E

Computer Fundamentals

Q113 / 115

EXCEPT (or MINUS in Oracle) returns?

A Union of two sets B Rows in first query not present in second query C Intersection D All rows

Computer Fundamentals

Q114 / 115

Which tool is used for API load testing?

A JUnit B Apache JMeter / k6 / Gatling C Selenium D SonarQube

Computer Fundamentals

Q115 / 115

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is used for?

A Database access B Enterprise SSO (Single Sign-On) using XML-based assertions C Encryption D VPN authentication

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