Computer [Computer Networks (15) + DBMS (20) + Software Project Management (20) + Software Engineering (20) + Computer Fundamentals (20) + OOP Using C++ (20)] — 07 Aug 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 115

A cable break in which topology stops all transmission

A Mesh B Bus C Star D Primary

Computer Networks

Q2 / 115

In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.

A byte-oriented B bit-oriented C either (a) or (b) D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q3 / 115

Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A process-to-process communication B host-to-host communication C end-to-end reliable data delivery D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q4 / 115

In Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), a packet is encapsulated directly into a

A Data link Integer B data link IP C Data link Station D Data link Frame

Computer Networks

Q5 / 115

_______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.

A TCP B UDP C IP D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q6 / 115

In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A next-hop B network-specific C host-specific D default

Computer Networks

Q7 / 115

If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A the destination IP address in the datagram header B the IP address of the router found in the routing table C either a or b D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q8 / 115

TCP/IP port number 69 is assigned for .

A telnet B simple mail transfer protocol (smtp) C file transfer protocol protocol (ftp) D trivial file transfer protocol (tftp)

Computer Networks

Q9 / 115

An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

A socket B pipe C port D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q10 / 115

IPS in firewall stands for .

A intrusion protection system B intrusion prevention software C internet prevention system D intrusion prevention system

Computer Networks

Q11 / 115

A program which runs in the background and sends results requested by a client is called a .

A server B client C port D ip address

Computer Networks

Q12 / 115

Differential Manchester and multi line transmission (MLT-3) schemes differ in

A Number of transition rules to encode binary data B Self synchronization C Both a and b D None of the above

Computer Networks

Q13 / 115

Usually, telnet connection is established using command followed by name of host.

A ftp B telnet C ping D ls

Computer Networks

Q14 / 115

The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called

A piggybacking B cyclic redundancy check C fletcher’s checksum D none of the mentioned

Computer Networks

Q15 / 115

Normally, WiFi signal reach m distance.

A 50 to 100m B 1 to 2m C 0.5 to 1.0m D 2 to 3m

DBMS

Q16 / 115

What distinguishes a weak entity from a strong entity and what is a discriminator?

A Weak entities do not participate in relationships B Weak entities have more attributes than strong entities C A weak entity cannot be uniquely identified by its own attributes alone and depends on a parent entity for identification; the discriminator is the partial key distinguishing weak entities with the same owner D Weak entities cannot have primary keys at all

DBMS

Q17 / 115

What is join dependency and how does it relate to 5NF?

A A dependency between join conditions in SQL B A constraint where a relation can be losslessly decomposed into n projections and reconstructed by joining them; a relation is in 5NF if every join dependency is implied by the candidate keys C A dependency created by foreign key constraints D A type of index for join optimization

DBMS

Q18 / 115

What is schema evolution in data modeling and why is it challenging?

A The process of modifying the database schema over time as requirements change challenging because it requires updating existing data, queries, application code, and possibly complex data migrations B Changing the ER diagram colors and notation C Converting ER models between different notations D Adding new ER models to complement existing ones

DBMS

Q19 / 115

Which SQL command imports a SQL dump file in MySQL command line

A IMPORT dump.sql B LOAD dump.sql C RUN dump.sql D mysql -u user -p database < dump.sql

DBMS

Q20 / 115

Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity?

A 2NF B 3NF C 4NF D 5NF

DBMS

Q21 / 115

The star schema data model used in data warehouses consists of:

A A single flat table with all attributes B Multiple fact tables with no dimension tables C A central fact table surrounded by denormalized dimension tables D Fully normalized tables in third normal form

DBMS

Q22 / 115

REPEATABLE READ isolation

A Allows dirty reads B Prevents dirty and non-repeatable reads but may allow phantom reads C Prevents all anomalies D Allows all anomalies

DBMS

Q23 / 115

When transaction Ti requests a data item currently held by Tj, Ti is allowed to wait only if it has a timestamp larger than that of Tj (that is, Ti is younger than Tj ). Otherwise, Tj is rolled back (Tj is wounded by Ti). This is

A wait-die B wait-wound C wound-wait D wait

DBMS

Q24 / 115

express the number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set.

A mapping cardinality B relational cardinality C participation constraints D none of the mentioned

DBMS

Q25 / 115

What are Armstrongs Axioms and what are the three primary rules?

A A set of query optimization rules B A set of sound and complete inference rules for FDs: Reflexivity (if Y is subset of X then X determines Y), Augmentation (if X determines Y then XZ determines YZ), and Transitivity (if X determines Y and Y determines Z then X determines Z) C A set of database design patterns D A set of rules for ER-to-relational mapping

DBMS

Q26 / 115

___________removes all rows from a table without logging the individual row deletions.

A DELETE B REMOVE C DROP D TRUNCATE

DBMS

Q27 / 115

CUME_DIST() of top row is

A 0.0 B 0.5 C NULL D 1.0/N

DBMS

Q28 / 115

You can delete a view with ___________ command.

A DROP VIEW B DELETE VIEW C REMOVE VIEW D TRUNCATE VIEW

DBMS

Q29 / 115

Which best defines data integrity in DBMS?

A Making data available 24/7 B Encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access C Compressing data to save storage space D Ensuring accuracy, consistency, and validity of data throughout its lifecycle

DBMS

Q30 / 115

Which of the following is a comparison operator?

A = B LIKE C BETWEEN D All of the above

DBMS

Q31 / 115

Which of the following trigger will be executed before modifying each row affected by the triggering statement?

A Before Statement Trigger B After Row Trigger C Before Row Trigger D None of the above

DBMS

Q32 / 115

Which of the following can be addressed by enforcing a referential integrity constraint?

A all phone numbers must include the area code B certain ﬁelds are required (such as the email address, or phone number) before the record is accepted C information on the customer must be known before anything can be sold to that customer D then entering an order quantity, the user must input a number and not some text (i.e., 12 rather than ‘a dozen’)

DBMS

Q33 / 115

Index on column with 1 million rows and 2 distinct values (gender) is

A Very beneficial B Useless since selectivity is extremely low (50% match) - optimizer may skip it C Always used D Mandatory

DBMS

Q34 / 115

RAID 0 provides

A Mirroring only B Parity protection C Fault tolerance D Striping only (improved performance, NO fault tolerance)

DBMS

Q35 / 115

Consider R(A,B,C) with FDs A to B, B to C, C to A. The candidate keys are:

A No candidate keys exist B Only AB C A, B, and C are all candidate keys (since each determines all others via transitivity forming an equivalence class) D Only A

Software Project Management

Q36 / 115

Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

A baselines B source code C data model D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q37 / 115

Which of the following is an architectural conflict?

A using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability B introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult C localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q38 / 115

How many styles are used in a screening interview?

A two B five C three D four

Software Project Management

Q39 / 115

Alpha testing is done at

A developer’s end B user’s end C developer’s & user’s end D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q40 / 115

Which of the following can be solved in computer science?

A p=bpp problem B np=co-np problem C do one way problems exist? D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q41 / 115

Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software

A stated needs B is easy to use C makes optimal use of system resources D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q42 / 115

Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?

A people B product C popularity D process

Software Project Management

Q43 / 115

What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

A highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required B increases reusability of components C encourages customer/client feedback D increases reusability of components, highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

Software Project Management

Q44 / 115

Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a

A client B investor C production team D project manager

Software Project Management

Q45 / 115

To enable a process to wait within the monitor

A a condition variable must be declared as condition B condition variables must be used as boolean objects C semaphore must be used D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q46 / 115

What is Scheduling?

A allowing a job to use the processor B making proper use of processor C all of the mentioned D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q47 / 115

Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?

A pert B cpm C cmm D both pert and cpm

Software Project Management

Q48 / 115

Which tender allows anyone to submit a tender to supply the goods or services that are required?

A framework tendering B selective tendering C open tendering D close tendering

Software Project Management

Q49 / 115

SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules

A in the current release B in the current release that have been changed C from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q50 / 115

Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

A project planning B project scheduling C project controlling D project being

Software Project Management

Q51 / 115

Exhaustive testing is

A always possible B practically possible C impractical but possible D impractical and impossible

Software Project Management

Q52 / 115

Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process?

A cm planning B executing the cm process C cm audits D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q53 / 115

Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?

A software macroscopic schedule B software project scheduling C software detailed schedule D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q54 / 115

Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of LOC (Line of Code).

A 100-200 B 200-400 C 400-1000 D above 1000

Software Project Management

Q55 / 115

Efficiency in a software product does not include

A responsiveness B licensing C memory utilization D processing time

Software Engineering

Q56 / 115

When files are broken up into small parts on a disk they are said to be

A track B table C folder D wallet

Software Engineering

Q57 / 115

The expectancy theory of motivation will focus on ________.

A Is impractical but possible B Is practically possible C Is impractical and impossible D Is always possible

Software Engineering

Q58 / 115

What is the core criticism of using Lines of Code (LOC) as a software productivity metric?

A LOC cannot be counted automatically B LOC incentivises verbose redundant code, penalises elegant solutions, varies with language, and counts non-functional code C LOC only applies to procedural languages D LOC is not recognised by any international standard

Software Engineering

Q59 / 115

Testing of nested loops were suggested by

A Fault Identification B Code Modification C Test cases selection D All of the above

Software Engineering

Q60 / 115

Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?

A Self-documentation B Training C Traceability D Simplicity

Software Engineering

Q61 / 115

Who leads a formal review process?

A computer programs B documents that describe the computer programs C data D all of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q62 / 115

Which design pattern you would you use to limit the class instantiation to one object?

A overload B bloated C full D overflow

Software Engineering

Q63 / 115

When a manager monitors the work performance of workers in his department to determine if the quality of their work is 'up to standard', this manager is engaging in which function?

A finding broken code B evaluating deliverable to ﬁnd errors C a stage of all projects D all of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q64 / 115

Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model:

A white box testing B black box testing C white box & black box testing D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q65 / 115

System engineering deals with

A Waterfall model B Evolutionary development C Re-use oriented development D Marketing model

Software Engineering

Q66 / 115

Which of the following is present in a nested concurrent state machine?

A trigger oriented transitions?? B self transitions?? C internal transitions?? D completion transitions

Software Engineering

Q67 / 115

What is the 'iron law of agile metrics' and why do output metrics (velocity, story count) often mislead about outcomes?

A Output metrics always perfectly correlate with business outcomes in well-run agile teams B Output metrics (velocity, stories completed, sprints delivered) measure activity, not value delivered — a team can have high velocity while building features nobody uses; the iron law states that what matters is outcome metrics (user adoption, business KPIs, customer satisfaction) which output metrics don't capture and can even inversely correlate with C Story count is always a reliable predictor of customer satisfaction across all product types D Agile metrics are entirely subjective and have no quantitative basis whatsoever

Software Engineering

Q68 / 115

What is the 'spiral within a spiral' concept when applying the Spiral model to subsystem development?

A Each developer independently runs their own mini-spiral for their assigned modules B The overall system development follows a Spiral, and each major subsystem may independently use its own Spiral within the context of the system-level spiral — allowing subsystem-specific risk management while aligning to system milestones C Spiral within a spiral is a theoretical concept with no practical implementation D Using nested spirals violates Boehm's original model and invalidates risk assessments

Software Engineering

Q69 / 115

which of the following grammer is LR(1)

A Report B Requirement C Defect D Analysis

Software Engineering

Q70 / 115

Debugging is a process of

A A graphic tool B Observational technique used to understand social and organizational requirements C A graph with nodes D None of these

Software Engineering

Q71 / 115

--------- it include the study like can the work for the project is done with current equipment existing software technology and with available manpower.

A Software engineering B Software re-engineering C Reverse engineering D Re-engineering

Software Engineering

Q72 / 115

_________ defined as a collection of program statements with four basic attribute i.e. input and output, function, mechanics and internal data

A Planning B Organizing C Operating D Tracking

Software Engineering

Q73 / 115

Which of the following is correct system design process ?

A risk identification B performance risk C support risk D risk projection

Software Engineering

Q74 / 115

For a function of n variables robustness testing of boundary value analysis yields:

A λ(µ)= λ0LN(-θµ) B λ(µ)= λ0exp(θµ) C λ(µ)= λ0exp(-θµ) D λ(µ)= λ0log(-θµ

Software Engineering

Q75 / 115

Agents are

A A-1, B-2 B A-1, B-1 C B-1, A-2 D A-2, B-2

OOP Using C++

Q76 / 115

What is the output: int x=7; cout<<((x>>1)^(x>>2));

A 2 B 7 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q77 / 115

What is the output: int a[3][2]={{1,2},{3,4},{5,6}}; cout<<a[2][0]+a[0][1];

A 7 B 6 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q78 / 115

What is the output: template<typename T> struct IsIntegral{static const bool v=false;}; template<> struct IsIntegral<int>{static const bool v=true;}; template<> struct IsIntegral<long>{static const bool v=true;}; cout<<IsIntegral<int>::v<<IsIntegral<double>::v<<IsIntegral<long>::v;

A 101 B 010 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q79 / 115

What is the output: class A{int x; public: explicit A(int v):x(v){} int get()const{return x;}}; A a=A(5); cout<<a.get();

A 5 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q80 / 115

What is the output: class Pipe{vector<function<int(int)>>fns; public: Pipe& add(function<int(int)>f){fns.push_back(f);return *this;} int run(int x){for(auto&f:fns)x=f(x);return x;}}; Pipe p; p.add([](int x){return x*2;}).add([](int x){return x+3;}).add([](int x){return x*x;}); cout<<p.run(5);

A 169 B 100 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q81 / 115

What is virtual inheritance?

A Ensures single base class instance in diamond inheritance B Virtual function inheritance C Pure virtual class D Multiple inheritance

OOP Using C++

Q82 / 115

What is the output: int f(int x,int y){return x*y;} int f(int x){return x*x;} cout<<f(4)<<f(3,4);

A 1612 B Compile error C Undefined D 16 12

OOP Using C++

Q83 / 115

What is the output: int x=5; auto f=[]()->decltype(x){return x*2;}; cout<<f();

A 10 B 5 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q84 / 115

What is the output: int a[]={1,2,3}; int (*p)[3]=&a; cout<<(*p)[0]+(*p)[2];

A 4 B 3 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q85 / 115

What is 'std::ranges::fold_left' (C++23)?

A Left fold over range with binary operation B Same as accumulate C A reduce D Both A and B

OOP Using C++

Q86 / 115

What is the output: for(int i=0;i<5;i++) {if(i<2) continue; if(i>3) break; cout<<i;}

A 23 B 234 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q87 / 115

What is the output: vector<int> f(int n){vector<int>r;for(int i=1;i<=n;i++)if(n%i==0)r.push_back(i);return r;} auto v=f(12); cout<<v.size()<<v.back();

A 612 B Compile error C Undefined D 6 12

OOP Using C++

Q88 / 115

What is the output: template<typename Container> int sumAll(const Container& c){int s=0;for(int x:c)s+=x;return s;} vector<int>v={1,2,3,4,5}; cout<<sumAll(v);

A 15 B 5 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q89 / 115

What is the output: auto x=0x1p4; cout<<x;

A 16 B 1 C 4 D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q90 / 115

What is the output: class A{public:int x; A(int v):x(v){} virtual bool eq(const A& o)const{return x==o.x;}}; class B:public A{public:B(int v):A(v){} bool eq(const A& o)const override{return A::eq(o);}}; A *p=new B(5); A *q=new B(5); cout<<p->eq(*q);

A 1 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q91 / 115

What is 'std::move_only_function' vs std::function?

A move_only_function holds non-copyable callables B Same thing C Slower D C++17 only

OOP Using C++

Q92 / 115

What is a 'smart pointer' in C++?

A A pointer with automatic memory management B A pointer to a class C A faster raw pointer D A compile-time pointer

OOP Using C++

Q93 / 115

In C++, what does 'decltype(auto)' do?

A Deduces type like auto B Deduces exact type including references C Only works with templates D Equivalent to decltype

OOP Using C++

Q94 / 115

What is the output: class A{public:virtual ~A(){} virtual int f()=0;}; class B:public A{int v; public:B(int x):v(x){} int f()override{return v;}}; shared_ptr<A>p=make_shared<B>(99); cout<<p->f();

A 99 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q95 / 115

What is the output: cout<<__func__;

A main B __func__ C Compile error D Undefined

Computer Fundamentals

Q96 / 115

Which format is used for configuration files in DevOps?

A Binary B YAML and JSON C CSV only D XML only

Computer Fundamentals

Q97 / 115

Steering wheel input device is used in?

A Office applications B Automotive driving simulators and games C 3D modeling D Music production

Computer Fundamentals

Q98 / 115

Which computer used the first mouse?

A IBM PC B Apple Macintosh C Xerox Alto D ENIAC

Computer Fundamentals

Q99 / 115

Rajasthan Sampark portal enables?

A Only complaint registration for ministers B Citizens to register and track grievances against government departments C Only tax payment D Only job applications

Computer Fundamentals

Q100 / 115

The Harvard architecture differs from von Neumann in that?

A It uses more registers B It has separate memory for instructions and data C It uses no cache D It processes floating point faster

Computer Fundamentals

Q101 / 115

iptables in Linux is used for?

A File permissions B Firewall rules for packet filtering and NAT C Process management D Package management

Computer Fundamentals

Q102 / 115

Write endurance of NAND flash is measured in?

A Bytes written B Program/Erase (P/E) cycles C Read operations D Seconds

Computer Fundamentals

Q103 / 115

Which protocol maps IP addresses to MAC addresses?

A DNS B ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) C DHCP D RARP

Computer Fundamentals

Q104 / 115

Capacitive touchscreen works using?

A Pressure B Change in electrical capacitance C Infrared beams D Resistive force

Computer Fundamentals

Q105 / 115

Which memory area stores local variables of a function?

A Heap B Stack C Data segment D Code segment

Computer Fundamentals

Q106 / 115

Patch management involves?

A Creating new software patches B Applying security updates to software C Managing database patches D Deleting old files

Computer Fundamentals

Q107 / 115

Quantum computing uses?

A Binary bits B Qubits (quantum bits) C Analog signals D Optical signals

Computer Fundamentals

Q108 / 115

VRM (Voltage Regulator Module) on motherboard?

A Stores BIOS settings B Converts and regulates power for CPU from PSU C Manages RAM timings D Controls display output

Computer Fundamentals

Q109 / 115

The operating system scheduler is responsible for?

A Managing disk storage B Allocating CPU time to processes C Compiling programs D Managing display output

Computer Fundamentals

Q110 / 115

Which tool is used for network vulnerability scanning?

A Wireshark B Nessus / OpenVAS C Metasploit D Nmap

Computer Fundamentals

Q111 / 115

Which port does HTTPS use?

A 80 B 8080 C 443 D 8443

Computer Fundamentals

Q112 / 115

Which output device is used by architects to draw plans?

A Inkjet printer B Plotter C Laser printer D Dot matrix printer

Computer Fundamentals

Q113 / 115

Charles Babbage's Difference Engine was designed to?

A Calculate ballistic tables B Compute polynomial functions by finite differences C Process business data D Control industrial machines

Computer Fundamentals

Q114 / 115

TRIM() function in Excel?

A Trims rows B Removes leading, trailing, and extra spaces from text C Cuts cell content D Shortens numbers

Computer Fundamentals

Q115 / 115

Decimal 32 in binary is?

A 100000 B 010000 C 110000 D 101000

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