Computer [Computer Networks (15) + DBMS (20) + Software Project Management (20) + Software Engineering (20) + Computer Fundamentals (20) + OOP Using C++ (20)] — 05 Aug 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 115

In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A next-hop B network-specific C host-specific D default

Computer Networks

Q2 / 115

In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits.

A byte-oriented B bit-oriented C either (a) or (b) D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q3 / 115

An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

A socket B pipe C port D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q4 / 115

Differential Manchester and multi line transmission (MLT-3) schemes differ in

A Number of transition rules to encode binary data B Self synchronization C Both a and b D None of the above

Computer Networks

Q5 / 115

TCP/IP port number 69 is assigned for .

A telnet B simple mail transfer protocol (smtp) C file transfer protocol protocol (ftp) D trivial file transfer protocol (tftp)

Computer Networks

Q6 / 115

_______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer.

A TCP B UDP C IP D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q7 / 115

IPS in firewall stands for .

A intrusion protection system B intrusion prevention software C internet prevention system D intrusion prevention system

Computer Networks

Q8 / 115

A program which runs in the background and sends results requested by a client is called a .

A server B client C port D ip address

Computer Networks

Q9 / 115

Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A process-to-process communication B host-to-host communication C end-to-end reliable data delivery D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q10 / 115

If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A the destination IP address in the datagram header B the IP address of the router found in the routing table C either a or b D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q11 / 115

In Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), a packet is encapsulated directly into a

A Data link Integer B data link IP C Data link Station D Data link Frame

Computer Networks

Q12 / 115

A cable break in which topology stops all transmission

A Mesh B Bus C Star D Primary

Computer Networks

Q13 / 115

The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called

A piggybacking B cyclic redundancy check C fletcher’s checksum D none of the mentioned

Computer Networks

Q14 / 115

Normally, WiFi signal reach m distance.

A 50 to 100m B 1 to 2m C 0.5 to 1.0m D 2 to 3m

Computer Networks

Q15 / 115

Usually, telnet connection is established using command followed by name of host.

A ftp B telnet C ping D ls

DBMS

Q16 / 115

What is query rewriting through views in materialized view-based optimization?

A The query optimizer automatically recognizes when a user query can be answered using a pre-computed materialized view (even if the query does not reference the view directly) and rewrites the query to use the materialized view for improved performance B Manually rewriting queries to avoid using views C Rewriting view definitions to improve their performance D Converting views into stored procedures

DBMS

Q17 / 115

Which oracle is the join condition is speciﬁed using the WHERE clause:

A oracle 9i B oracle 8i C pre-oracle 9i D pre-oracle 8i

DBMS

Q18 / 115

What is deadlock detection using a wait-for graph and how does the DBMS resolve detected deadlocks?

A A wait-for graph has one node per transaction and a directed edge T1 to T2 if T1 is waiting for a lock held by T2; a cycle in this graph indicates a deadlock; DBMS resolves by selecting a victim transaction to abort (typically the youngest cheapest or least-work-done transaction) B A graph showing the order of lock acquisitions C Deadlocks are prevented rather than detected D A graph used to optimize lock ordering

DBMS

Q19 / 115

What is deadlock prevention (vs detection) and what strategies implement it?

A Preventing database crashes caused by deadlocks B Preventing transactions from acquiring too many locks C Using timeouts to kill long-waiting transactions D Ensuring deadlocks cannot occur by design without needing to detect them: (1) Wait-Die: older transaction waits younger dies/restarts; (2) Wound-Wait: older transaction wounds (forces rollback of) younger younger waits; (3) Lock ordering: all transactions acquire locks in predefined order (no circular waits possible)

DBMS

Q20 / 115

What is the union rule derived from Armstrongs axioms?

A If X to Y then XZ to Y B If X to Y and X to Z then X to YZ (you can combine right-hand sides when the left-hand side is the same) C If X to Y and Y to Z then X to Z D If X to YZ then X to Y and X to Z

DBMS

Q21 / 115

GROUP BY groups rows that

A Have different values B Share same values in specified columns C Are sorted D Are NULL

DBMS

Q22 / 115

Which of the following is true of a network structure?

A it will be dominant data base of the future B it allows a many-to-many relationship C it is a physical representation of the data D it is conceptually simple

DBMS

Q23 / 115

What is predicate locking and why is it theoretically necessary for SERIALIZABLE isolation?

A A type of lock used in WHERE clause optimization B Locking based on column predicates C Locking all rows satisfying a predicate (not just currently existing rows) to prevent phantom reads - e.g. locking all rows WHERE salary > 50000 prevents any insertion of a new row with salary=60000 by another transaction; theoretically necessary because row-level locks cannot prevent phantom insertions D Locking tables based on query predicates

DBMS

Q24 / 115

Which SQL language specifies the database schema?

A DML B DDL C DCL D TCL

DBMS

Q25 / 115

Blueprints are intended to:

A prototype of the screen layout showing navigation and main design elements B show the grouping of pages and user journeys C indicate the structure of a site during site design and as a user feature D prototype typical customer journeys or clickstreams through a website

DBMS

Q26 / 115

In attacks, the attacker manages to get an application to execute an SQL query created by the attacker.

A sql injection B sql C direct D application

DBMS

Q27 / 115

In MySQL InnoDB when a deadlock is detected what information does InnoDB provide?

A InnoDB does not detect deadlocks automatically B InnoDB prevents all deadlocks using lock ordering C MySQL requires manual deadlock detection by the application D InnoDB has automatic deadlock detection using a wait-for graph; when detected the transaction with less undo log is chosen as victim and rolled back; deadlock information is accessible via SHOW ENGINE INNODB STATUS or the performance_schema.data_lock_waits table

DBMS

Q28 / 115

In ER modeling what is a derived attribute and how is it represented?

A An attribute shared between two entities B An attribute copied from another entity C An attribute with multiple values D An attribute whose value can be computed from other stored attributes represented by a dashed/dotted ellipse in ER diagrams

DBMS

Q29 / 115

Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?

A 2nf B 5nf C 4nf D 3nf

DBMS

Q30 / 115

Which of the following is a comparison operator?

A = B LIKE C BETWEEN D All of the above

DBMS

Q31 / 115

The normal form which satisfies multivalued dependencies and which is in BCNF is

A 4 NF B 3 NF C 2 NF D All of the mentioned

DBMS

Q32 / 115

OLAP stands for

A online analytical processing B online analysis processing C online transaction processing D online aggregate processing

DBMS

Q33 / 115

A graphical or text depiction of the relationship between diﬀerent groups of content on a website is a:

A page template B wireframe C site map D cascading style sheet (css)

DBMS

Q34 / 115

In relational model, a relation is formally defined as a SUBSET of the Cartesian product of

A Its attribute values B Column types C Its attribute domains (D1×D2×...×Dn) D Its tuple values

DBMS

Q35 / 115

What is the gap lock in MySQL InnoDB and how does it implement phantom read prevention?

A A lock on deleted rows B A lock on the gap between index values that prevents other transactions from inserting new rows into that gap - used by InnoDB REPEATABLE READ to prevent phantom reads by locking the index ranges between existing values C A lock on empty rows in a table D A lock on non-indexed columns

Software Project Management

Q36 / 115

With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

A using very large time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm B using very small time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm C using extremely small time slices increases performance D using very small time slices converts it into shortest job first algorithm

Software Project Management

Q37 / 115

Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?

A predicting staffing levels B predicting software cost C predicting software schedules D predicting clients demands

Software Project Management

Q38 / 115

What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?

A change control B version control C scis D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q39 / 115

Which of the following is not a build system feature?

A minimal recompilation B documentation generation C storage management D reporting

Software Project Management

Q40 / 115

The full form of CPM is

A critical path method B control path method C critical plan management D control path management

Software Project Management

Q41 / 115

The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as

A pessimistic time estimate B optimistic time estimate C expected time estimate D the most likely time estimate

Software Project Management

Q42 / 115

Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?

A communication B planning C modeling & construction D deployment

Software Project Management

Q43 / 115

Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?

A thread B pipe C semaphore D socket

Software Project Management

Q44 / 115

Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?

A changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes B technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance C human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q45 / 115

The full form of PERT is

A program evaluation and rate technology B program evaluation and robot technique C program evaluation and robot technology D program evaluation and review technique

Software Project Management

Q46 / 115

Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web- based systems?

A architecture B repository pattern C model-view-controller D different operating system

Software Project Management

Q47 / 115

SMI stands for

A software mature indicator B software maturity index C software mature index D software maturity indicator

Software Project Management

Q48 / 115

The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as

A free float B independent float C total float D half float

Software Project Management

Q49 / 115

Which structure describes units as abstraction of system’s functional requirements?

A conceptual structure B module structure C physical structure D calls structure

Software Project Management

Q50 / 115

Which of these is true ?

A generic products and customized products are types of software products B generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market C customized products are commissioned by particular customer D all of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q51 / 115

If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

A winwin spiral model B spiral model C concurrent model D incremental model

Software Project Management

Q52 / 115

Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?

A cooperating process B child process C parent process D init process

Software Project Management

Q53 / 115

Mutual exclusion can be provided by the

A mutex locks B binary semaphores C both mutex locks and binary semaphores D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q54 / 115

Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?

A practitioners B project managers C senior managers D none of the mentioned

Software Project Management

Q55 / 115

The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called

A process metric B process analysis C process modelling D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q56 / 115

Back-patching is useful for handling

A syntax analysis B lexical analysis C interpretation analysis D general syntax analysis

Software Engineering

Q57 / 115

What is the 'scientific method' applied to debugging and what specific cognitive error does it prevent?

A Scientific method debugging requires formal mathematical proofs of every hypothesised fix B Scientific debugging forms explicit hypotheses, designs a minimal experiment to test each hypothesis, and records results before forming the next — preventing 'shotgun debugging' (making random changes hoping one fixes the bug) which destroys evidence and may mask the real fault C Scientific method debugging is only taught in academic computer science courses and not used in industry D Scientific debugging requires more time than shotgun debugging and is only used for critical bugs

Software Engineering

Q58 / 115

What would lead you to apply the builder design pattern?

A tightly coupled B strong coupled C loosely coupled D weak coupled

Software Engineering

Q59 / 115

The time oriented diagram include …

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

Software Engineering

Q60 / 115

What are the signs that a software project is in trouble

A identify business processes B identify system goals C describe workflow D prioritize system procedures

Software Engineering

Q61 / 115

Quality planning at organisational level must be done by

A white box testing B black box testing C grey box testing D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q62 / 115

Build and fix model has

A Object design models B Object interface design C Object oriented models D None of these

Software Engineering

Q63 / 115

What is 'dark scrum' and what symptom indicates a team has fallen into this anti-pattern?

A Dark scrum refers to teams that work exclusively at night to avoid management oversight B Dark scrum occurs when Scrum ceremonies become tools for surveillance and control rather than collaboration — symptoms include: daily standups becoming status reports to managers (not peer coordination), retrospectives where no real issues are raised for fear of repercussions, and velocity used to compare/punish individuals C Dark scrum is a certified advanced agile framework for distributed remote teams D Dark scrum only occurs in organisations using the Scrum@Scale framework

Software Engineering

Q64 / 115

What is a deployment view of a software architecture?

A mark class a final B mark class a abstract C apply the singleton pattern to class a D apply the memento pattern to class a

Software Engineering

Q65 / 115

What is 'knowledge management' in software maintenance and what creates 'knowledge debt'?

A Knowledge management refers to tracking which developers have read the software documentation B Knowledge management in maintenance preserves and distributes understanding of the system — 'knowledge debt' accumulates when: key developers leave without knowledge transfer, documentation is not updated with changes, and tribal knowledge is never externalised into wikis or decision records C Knowledge debt is automatically resolved by modern IDEs that extract documentation from code D Knowledge management is only important for projects with more than 50 developers

Software Engineering

Q66 / 115

Match the following : A-Control metrics : B- Process metrics: C- Control: D-Correctness: 1- They are associated with software process. 2- They are associated with software products. 3- Protective measure that reduces system vulnerability. 4- Extent to which a system or component is free from faults in its specification, design, and implementation

A As low as reasonably practical (ALARP) risk B Architectural design C Attack D None of these

Software Engineering

Q67 / 115

Which one is not the non-functional activity ?

A bcws B eva C bac D cbse

Software Engineering

Q68 / 115

------------- these are systems which are commissioned by a particular customer.

A Formal Information system B Closed system C MIS D DSS

Software Engineering

Q69 / 115

Encapsulate a request as an object, there by letting you parametrize clients with different requests, queue or log requests, and support undoable operation.

A 7 B 8 C 9 D 10

Software Engineering

Q70 / 115

A model is a _________ of reality.

A transitions B events?? C signals?? D state

Software Engineering

Q71 / 115

The user system requirements are the parts of which document?

A Software company B Installation place C Anywhere D None of the above

Software Engineering

Q72 / 115

Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

A impractical but possible B possible C impractical and impossible D impossible

Software Engineering

Q73 / 115

Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model:

A white box testing B black box testing C white box & black box testing D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q74 / 115

Which of these is correct

A a node B an interface C an activity D none of the mentioned

Software Engineering

Q75 / 115

Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and __________is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

A Branching B Merging C Code line D Mainline

OOP Using C++

Q76 / 115

What is the output: cout<<__func__;

A main B __func__ C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q77 / 115

What is the output: vector<int> v={1,2,3,4,5}; v.assign(3,9); cout<<v.size()<<v[0];

A 39 B 59 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q78 / 115

What is the output: class A{public:virtual void f(){cout<<1;}}; class B:public A{public:void f()override{cout<<2;} void g(){f(); A::f();}}; B b; b.g();

A 21 B 12 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q79 / 115

What is the output: for(int i=1;i<=5;i++) cout<<(i%2?"*":"_");

A *_*_* B _*_*_ C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q80 / 115

What is 'exception neutral' code?

A Code that doesn't catch exceptions but allows them to propagate B Code with no exceptions possible C noexcept everywhere D Try-catch everywhere

OOP Using C++

Q81 / 115

What is the output: class A{int x=0; public: void f(){x++;} int g()const{return x;}}; A *p=new A[3]; for(int i=0;i<3;i++) p[i].f(); cout<<p[1].g(); delete[]p;

A 1 B 3 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q82 / 115

What is 'conversion operator' vs constructor conversion?

A Conv op: class->other type; constructor: other type->class B Same thing C Both are implicit D Neither is explicit

OOP Using C++

Q83 / 115

What is the output: class A{public:virtual int f()const{return 1;}}; class B:public A{public:int f()const override{return 2;} int f(){return 3;}}; const A*p=new B; cout<<p->f();

A 2 B 3 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q84 / 115

What is 'multiple inheritance' in C++?

A Class inheriting from more than one base class B Multiple objects of same class C Multiple constructor overloads D Multiple virtual functions

OOP Using C++

Q85 / 115

What is the output: template<typename T> struct Decay{using type=remove_cvref_t<T>;}; cout<<is_same_v<Decay<const int&>::type,int>;

A 1 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q86 / 115

What is the output: class Observable{vector<function<void()>> obs; public: void subscribe(function<void()> f){obs.push_back(f);} void notify(){for(auto& f:obs) f();}}; Observable o; int x=0; o.subscribe([&]{x++;}); o.subscribe([&]{x+=2;}); o.notify(); cout<<x;

A 3 B 1 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q87 / 115

What is the output: int a[]={1,2,3,4,5}; cout<<*(max_element(a,a+5)-1);

A 4 B 5 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q88 / 115

What is the output: for(int i=1;i<6;i++) cout<<(i*i-1)/(i+1)+1;

A 12345 B 23456 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q89 / 115

What is the type deduced by: auto& x = 42;

A int B int& C const int& D Compile error

OOP Using C++

Q90 / 115

What is the output: int x=5; cout<<max({x,x*2,x-1,x+3});

A 10 B 8 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q91 / 115

What is the output: void f(){try{throw 1;}catch(int i){cout<<i; throw i+10;}} try{f();}catch(int i){cout<<i;}

A 111 B 1 11 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q92 / 115

What is the output: try{vector<int>v={1,2,3};cout<<v.at(5);}catch(out_of_range&){cout<<'O';}catch(exception&){cout<<'E';}

A O B E C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q93 / 115

What is a 'translation unit' in C++?

A A single .cpp file after preprocessing B A compiled .obj file C A single function D A single class definition

OOP Using C++

Q94 / 115

What is the output: class Singleton{static Singleton* inst; Singleton(){} public: static Singleton* get(){if(!inst) inst=new Singleton; return inst;} int x=42;}; Singleton* Singleton::inst=nullptr; cout<<Singleton::get()->x;

A 42 C Compile error D Undefined

OOP Using C++

Q95 / 115

What is the output: int x=10; x=x/2+x%2; cout<<x;

A 5 B 6 C Compile error D Undefined

Computer Fundamentals

Q96 / 115

The first computer game is considered to be?

A Pong B Spacewar! (1962) or OXO (1952) C Tetris D Doom

Computer Fundamentals

Q97 / 115

Data minimization principle in GDPR?

A Collect as much data as possible B Collect only minimum personal data necessary for the specific purpose C Minimize data encryption D Delete data frequently

Computer Fundamentals

Q98 / 115

INTERSECT in SQL returns?

A All rows combined B Rows common to both queries C Only unique rows D First query only

Computer Fundamentals

Q99 / 115

Virtual environment in Python (venv) is used to?

A Run Python faster B Create isolated Python environments with separate dependencies per project C Virtualize hardware D Create Docker containers

Computer Fundamentals

Q100 / 115

Which OS uses APK packages?

A iOS B Android C Windows Mobile D BlackBerry OS

Computer Fundamentals

Q101 / 115

The shortcut key for Undo in MS Word is?

A Ctrl+Z B Ctrl+Y C Ctrl+U D Ctrl+X

Computer Fundamentals

Q102 / 115

The access time of cache memory compared to RAM is?

A Slower B Same C Faster D Depends on data size

Computer Fundamentals

Q103 / 115

Refresh rate of 60 Hz means?

A 60 million cycles per second B Screen refreshes 60 times per second C 60 pixels rendered per second D 60 ms response time

Computer Fundamentals

Q104 / 115

Which generation of computer used GaAs (Gallium Arsenide) chips?

A Third B Fourth C Fifth D Second

Computer Fundamentals

Q105 / 115

RAM stands for?

A Random Access Memory B Read Access Memory C Rapid Access Memory D Read And Memory

Computer Fundamentals

Q106 / 115

What is the decimal equivalent of binary 1010?

A 8 B 10 C 12 D 14

Computer Fundamentals

Q107 / 115

Context-free language recognized by?

A Finite automaton B Pushdown automaton (PDA) C Turing machine only D Linear bounded automaton

Computer Fundamentals

Q108 / 115

Which constraint ensures unique values in a column?

A PRIMARY KEY B UNIQUE C NOT NULL D FOREIGN KEY

Computer Fundamentals

Q109 / 115

Apple Inc. was co-founded by?

A Steve Jobs only B Steve Jobs, Steve Wozniak, and Ronald Wayne C Bill Gates and Steve Jobs D Tim Cook

Computer Fundamentals

Q110 / 115

Which cable type is immune to electromagnetic interference?

A UTP B STP C Coaxial D Fiber optic

Computer Fundamentals

Q111 / 115

Which storage classification is 'cold storage'?

A Frequently accessed data B Rarely accessed archive data (cheap, slow) C In-memory data D Cache data

Computer Fundamentals

Q112 / 115

Cloud bursting allows?

A Cloud to burst data B Apps in private cloud to burst to public cloud during peak demand C Automatic scaling always D Public to private overflow

Computer Fundamentals

Q113 / 115

Traveling Salesman Problem (TSP) is?

A Solvable in polynomial time B NP-hard with no known polynomial solution C Linear time D A sorting problem

Computer Fundamentals

Q114 / 115

Process 1 (PID 1) in Linux is?

A bash B init/systemd C kernel D login

Computer Fundamentals

Q115 / 115

Special purpose computers are designed for?

A General tasks B One specific task C Multiple users D Scientific research only

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