Networking, DBMS [Computer Networks (25) + DBMS (25)] — 05 Aug 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 50

What is load testing

A Physical load test B Protocol load test C Testing system under expected peak and beyond peak load D Security load test

Computer Networks

Q2 / 50

VMware vSAN is

A Network-attached storage B Physical SAN C Traditional SAN D Software-defined storage pooling local server disks

Computer Networks

Q3 / 50

What is FCoE (Fiber Channel over Ethernet)

A Protocol FCoE B Security FCoE C Running Fiber Channel SAN traffic over Ethernet D Physical FCoE

Computer Networks

Q4 / 50

What is beam failure recovery

A Physical recovery B Security recovery C Protocol recovery D UE detecting beam failure and requesting new beam

Computer Networks

Q5 / 50

Transport layer protocols are useful for ensuring ______________ delivery.

A H-2-H B H-2-R C N/W-2-N/W D End-2-End

Computer Networks

Q6 / 50

SSRF allows

A Server to make requests to internal/external resources B Client-side attack C Physical access D UI redressing

Computer Networks

Q7 / 50

SHA-256 produces digest of

A 224 bits B 160 bits C 256 bits D 128 bits

Computer Networks

Q8 / 50

Botnet is

A Network of compromised machines controlled by attacker B Single infected machine C Physical robot network D Bot routing protocol

Computer Networks

Q9 / 50

IPSec AH provides

A Integrity and authentication without encryption B Authentication only C Encryption only D Compression only

Computer Networks

Q10 / 50

API gateway provides

A Protocol gateway B Hardware gateway C Physical gateway D Entry point for API traffic management auth rate limiting

Computer Networks

Q11 / 50

MPLS TE affinity bits match

A Physical links B Security links C Protocol links D Link attribute bits for constraint-based path selection

Computer Networks

Q12 / 50

What is CISM certification

A Protocol CISM B Certified Information Security Manager C Security CISM D Physical CISM

Computer Networks

Q13 / 50

Broadcast storm results from

A IP conflict B Layer 2 loop causing uncontrolled broadcast proliferation C Physical damage D Normal STP

Computer Networks

Q14 / 50

Service discovery in microservices

A Protocol discovery B Physical discovery C DNS only D Auto-registers and finds service network locations

Computer Networks

Q15 / 50

What is network perimeter security evolution

A From hard perimeter to zero trust with no implicit trust B Protocol evolution C Security evolution D Physical evolution

Computer Networks

Q16 / 50

QUIC was developed by

A Apple B Microsoft C IBM D Google

Computer Networks

Q17 / 50

The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.

A correction; detection B detection; correction C creation; correction D creation; detection

Computer Networks

Q18 / 50

What is mediation system in telco

A Security mediation B Protocol mediation C Physical mediation D Collecting and formatting CDRs for billing system

Computer Networks

Q19 / 50

Backup encryption protects

A Protocol backup B Physical backup C Data at rest in backup storage D Network transmission

Computer Networks

Q20 / 50

XDP provides

A External data protocol B High-performance packet processing at driver level C Extended data plane D eXtra data path

Computer Networks

Q21 / 50

eBPF uprobe is for

A User space function tracing B Physical function tracing C Protocol tracing D Kernel function tracing

Computer Networks

Q22 / 50

Backup testing validates

A Security restoration B Protocol restoration C That backups can actually be restored D Physical restoration

Computer Networks

Q23 / 50

UDP is

A Connection-oriented B Reliable C Encrypted D Connectionless and unreliable

Computer Networks

Q24 / 50

What is uRPF strict mode

A Physical strict B Source IP must match interface it arrived on C Protocol strict D Storage strict

Computer Networks

Q25 / 50

What is DAS (Distributed Antenna System)

A Physical DAS B Security DAS C Distributed antenna infrastructure for indoor wireless coverage D Protocol DAS

DBMS

Q26 / 50

The relation with primary key can be created using

A create table instructor (id, name) B create table instructor (id, name, primary key(name)) C create table instructor (id, name, primary key (id)) D create table instructor ( id unique, name )

DBMS

Q27 / 50

What is generalized projection operation in extended relational algebra?

A A projection that generalizes to outer joins B A projection that allows arithmetic expressions and renaming in the projection list e.g. pi_name, salary*1.1 AS new_salary (R) C A projection that works on generalized entities D A projection applied to all relations simultaneously

DBMS

Q28 / 50

What is the purpose of the isolation level REPEATABLE READ and which anomalies does it prevent and allow?

A REPEATABLE READ is identical to READ COMMITTED B REPEATABLE READ prevents dirty reads and non-repeatable reads (same row read twice returns same value within a transaction by holding read locks or using MVCC snapshots) but in standard SQL REPEATABLE READ allows phantom reads - though MySQL InnoDB also prevents phantoms via gap locks C REPEATABLE READ prevents all anomalies D REPEATABLE READ prevents only dirty reads

DBMS

Q29 / 50

If no header is speciﬁed, the block is said to be an PL/SQL block.

A strong B weak C empty D anonymous

DBMS

Q30 / 50

What distinguishes a weak entity from a strong entity and what is a discriminator?

A Weak entities do not participate in relationships B Weak entities have more attributes than strong entities C A weak entity cannot be uniquely identified by its own attributes alone and depends on a parent entity for identification; the discriminator is the partial key distinguishing weak entities with the same owner D Weak entities cannot have primary keys at all

DBMS

Q31 / 50

Isolation ensures

A Transactions are fast B Committed data is permanent C Concurrent transactions do not interfere with each other D DB is always backed up

DBMS

Q32 / 50

The complexity of a linear search algorithm is

A o(n) B o(log n) C o(n2) D o(n log n)

DBMS

Q33 / 50

WITH CHECK OPTION on updatable view ensures

A All updates prevented B Updates through view MUST satisfy view's WHERE condition C View becomes read-only D Updates cascade

DBMS

Q34 / 50

What is the SQL standard CREATE VIEW statement and what properties must hold for a view to be created successfully?

A Views can be created from any SQL statement B Views must always reference at least two base tables C A view is created from a valid SELECT statement; key requirements vary by DBMS but typically: no ORDER BY in the view definition (without LIMIT/TOP), consistent column names (either from SELECT or via aliases), and the underlying tables/views must exist D Views can include INSERT UPDATE DELETE statements

DBMS

Q35 / 50

What does cardinality ratio specify in an ER relationship?

A The maximum number of relationship instances an entity can participate in expressed as 1:1, 1:N, or M:N B The minimum number of entity instances required C The number of attributes in each entity D The number of primary keys in a relationship

DBMS

Q36 / 50

What is refined data?

A Knowledge B Information C Statistics D None of the above

DBMS

Q37 / 50

What is transaction chopping (also called transaction splitting) and when is it safe to apply?

A Chopping SQL statements for performance B Splitting transactions across multiple databases C The technique of dividing a long transaction into smaller sub-transactions to improve concurrency; safe only when: the sub-transactions maintain the same semantic consistency there are no dependencies between the pieces that require atomic execution and the application can handle partial failures D Randomly splitting transactions into smaller pieces

DBMS

Q38 / 50

is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically invoked whenever the data in the table is modiﬁed.

A procedure B trigger C curser D none of the mentioned

DBMS

Q39 / 50

What is the difference between DELETE and TRUNCATE in terms of transaction log and recoverability?

A DELETE is always faster than TRUNCATE B TRUNCATE cannot be rolled back in any DBMS C DELETE and TRUNCATE produce identical transaction log entries D DELETE logs each individual row deletion (fully logged) enabling row-level rollback and trigger firing; TRUNCATE uses minimal logging (deallocates entire data pages) making it much faster but in most DBMS still rollbackable within an explicit transaction

DBMS

Q40 / 50

What columnar data model characteristic makes it suitable for OLAP?

A It eliminates the need for indexes B It can only store one column per table C Storing values of each column contiguously enables high compression ratios and allows reading only required columns dramatically reducing I/O for aggregation queries D It stores data in alphabetical order

DBMS

Q41 / 50

What is the lost update problem and which isolation level prevents it?

A A transaction that accidentally deletes rows instead of updating them B A problem that only occurs in distributed databases across multiple nodes C The lost update problem: T1 reads value X=100, T2 reads value X=100, T1 writes X+=50 (X=150), T2 writes X+=30 (X=130 based on its stale read) - T1 update is lost. Prevented by: REPEATABLE READ (read locks prevent T2 from reading until T1 commits), SERIALIZABLE, or optimistic locking (T2 update fails because X changed since T2 read it) D An issue where a transaction loses its network connection before committing

DBMS

Q42 / 50

In a relation between the entities the type and condition of the relation should be specified. That is called as______attribute.

A Desciptive B Derived C Recursive D Relative

DBMS

Q43 / 50

Immediate database modiﬁcation technique uses

A both undo and redo B undo but no redo C redo but no undo D neither undo nor redo

DBMS

Q44 / 50

Dynamic Management View is a type of ___________

A System Defined Views B User Defined View C Simple View D Complex View

DBMS

Q45 / 50

What is isolation level degradation and when is it safe to lower the isolation level from SERIALIZABLE?

A Lowering the isolation level causes data corruption B Isolation level can only be raised not lowered C Deliberately using a lower isolation level than SERIALIZABLE to improve performance; safe when: the application can tolerate specific anomalies (e.g. approximate counts where phantom reads are acceptable) or when transactions are read-only (no write skew possible) or when application-level controls compensate D Isolation level degradation is never safe

DBMS

Q46 / 50

Tertiary storage is built with :

A a lot of money B unremovable media C removable media D secondary storage

DBMS

Q47 / 50

What is the purpose of a materialized view?

A Materialized views cannot be updated B Materialized views are identical to regular views C Materialized views only work for read-only databases D Materialized views physically store precomputed query results improving performance at the cost of storage and refresh overhead

DBMS

Q48 / 50

Which of the following retains duplicate rows in the result of a query or in an Aggregate expression?

A ALL B DISTINCT C PRIOR D None of the above

DBMS

Q49 / 50

What is the purpose of Write-Ahead Logging (WAL)?

A To improve read performance by caching writes B To ensure all changes are logged to disk before they are applied enabling recovery after failures C To replicate data to standby databases in real-time D To compress write operations to save I/O bandwidth

DBMS

Q50 / 50

A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:

A Second normal form. B Third normal form C Fourth normal form. D Domain/key normal form.

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