Networking, DBMS [Computer Networks (25) + DBMS (25)] — 03 Aug 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 50

What is TTL-based traceroute vs timestamp-based

A Protocol comparison B Security comparison C Standard traceroute uses TTL ICMP uses timestamp option D Physical comparison

Computer Networks

Q2 / 50

MQTT QoS level 0 is

A Exactly once B At least once C No delivery guarantee D At most once (fire and forget)

Computer Networks

Q3 / 50

HTTP HEAD method returns

A Empty response B Full response body C Error only D Headers only without body

Computer Networks

Q4 / 50

Hybrid topology combines

A Only logical topologies B Two or more different topologies C Only two topologies D Only physical topologies

Computer Networks

Q5 / 50

OSPF flood reduction reduces

A Physical floods B LSA refresh flooding in stable networks C Protocol floods D Security floods

Computer Networks

Q6 / 50

RST flag in TCP means

A Request slow transmit B Reconnect signal C Reset - immediately abort connection D Regular shutdown

Computer Networks

Q7 / 50

What is DCB (Data Center Bridging)

A Security DCB B Physical DCB C Protocol DCB D Set of IEEE enhancements for lossless data center Ethernet

Computer Networks

Q8 / 50

eBGP is

A Embedded BGP B BGP for internet core only C BGP within same AS D BGP between different ASes

Computer Networks

Q9 / 50

What is optical power budget

A Maximum allowed loss between transmitter and receiver B Physical budget C Security budget D Protocol budget

Computer Networks

Q10 / 50

What is email header analysis in security

A Physical analysis B Security analysis C Tracing email path and detecting spoofing via headers D Protocol analysis

Computer Networks

Q11 / 50

The internet is an example of

A MAN B LAN C PAN D WAN

Computer Networks

Q12 / 50

Hot standby site is

A Fully active duplicate environment B Data-only site C Empty site D Cold site

Computer Networks

Q13 / 50

Computer network primary purpose is

A Resource sharing communication and distributed processing B Security connection C Physical connection D Protocol connection

Computer Networks

Q14 / 50

What is CompTIA Network+ purpose

A Vendor-neutral entry networking certification B Physical purpose C Security purpose D Protocol purpose

Computer Networks

Q15 / 50

Block storage is best for

A Static websites B Media streaming C Databases requiring low-latency block-level access D Backups only

Computer Networks

Q16 / 50

TCP window scaling extends window to

A 1 GB using shift count B 512 KB C 128 KB D 256 KB

Computer Networks

Q17 / 50

IHL field in IPv4 measures header length in units of

A Octets B Bytes C 4-byte words D Bits

Computer Networks

Q18 / 50

VLAN ID range for standard VLANs is

A 1-512 B 1-1024 C 1-4094 D 1-256

Computer Networks

Q19 / 50

Full backup copies

A Only incremental B Only metadata C Only recent changes D All selected data

Computer Networks

Q20 / 50

What is terahertz communication

A Security THz B Using 100GHz-10THz frequencies for very high bandwidth 6G C Physical THz D Protocol THz

Computer Networks

Q21 / 50

Kubernetes persistent volume is

A Storage resource provisioned in cluster B Network cache C Temporary storage D Pod memory

Computer Networks

Q22 / 50

BGP AS path prepending makes route

A Less preferred for inbound traffic B Faster C More preferred D Shorter

Computer Networks

Q23 / 50

What is forensic imaging in incident response

A Creating exact bit-for-bit copy of storage for analysis B Protocol imaging C Physical imaging D Security imaging

Computer Networks

Q24 / 50

RIR APNIC covers

A North America B Asia Pacific C Europe D Africa

Computer Networks

Q25 / 50

DTP desirable mode

A Never trunks B Always access C Actively attempts to negotiate trunk D Passive trunk negotiation

DBMS

Q26 / 50

What is a trivial functional dependency and why is it excluded from normal form violation checks?

A A FD excluded because it is too complex B A FD involving only numeric attributes C A FD involving only trivial attributes D X to Y where Y is a subset of X - it always holds in any relation (by reflexivity) because a set of attributes always determines its own subset providing no real constraint on data

DBMS

Q27 / 50

What is extraneous attribute in the context of finding a minimal cover?

A An attribute with no functional dependencies B An attribute A in the LHS of an FD X to Y such that removing A still preserves the equivalence: (F minus FD) union ((X-A) to Y) is equivalent to F C An attribute that appears in more than three FDs D Any attribute not in the primary key

DBMS

Q28 / 50

Which join algorithm is best when inner table has index on join attribute?

A Cross join B Sort-merge join C Hash join D Index nested-loop join (uses index to find matching rows rapidly)

DBMS

Q29 / 50

Columns in a relational table are called

A Tuples B Records C Instances D Attributes or Domains

DBMS

Q30 / 50

………………… is a full form of SQL.

A Standard query language B Sequential query language C Structured query language D Server side query language

DBMS

Q31 / 50

The degree (arity) of a relation is

A Number of rows B Number of candidate keys C Number of columns (attributes) D Number of indexes

DBMS

Q32 / 50

Fifth Normal form is concerned with

A Functional dependency B Multivalued dependency C Join dependency D Domain-key

DBMS

Q33 / 50

The relation with the attribute which is the primary key is referenced in another relation. The relation which has the attribute as a primary key is called ______________

A Referential relation B Referencing relation C Referenced relation D Referred relation

DBMS

Q34 / 50

What is the Bankers algorithm for deadlock avoidance and what information does it require?

A A resource allocation algorithm that determines whether granting a resource request leaves the system in a safe state; requires: for each transaction - maximum resource needs declared in advance current allocation and remaining need; safe state = exists a sequence in which all transactions can complete using available resources B An algorithm for distributing resources evenly among transactions C A financial transaction scheduling algorithm D A banking application algorithm for managing transactions

DBMS

Q35 / 50

What is the lock ordering deadlock prevention strategy?

A Establishing a total ordering on all lockable resources and requiring ALL transactions to acquire locks in that predefined order; since every transaction acquires locks in the same order no circular wait can form B Preventing more than two transactions from holding locks simultaneously C Ordering locks alphabetically by column name D Ordering transactions by their start time for lock acquisition

DBMS

Q36 / 50

Every relation in BCNF is also in

A 3NF B 2NF C 1NF D None of the above

DBMS

Q37 / 50

Weak entity PK is formed by

A Its own key attribute B Discriminator plus owner entity's primary key C Foreign key only D All attributes

DBMS

Q38 / 50

A scalar subquery returns

A Multiple rows B Exactly one row and one column (single value) C No rows D A derived table

DBMS

Q39 / 50

If an index is the metadata and statistics continue to exists

A disabling B dropping C altering D both disabling and dropping

DBMS

Q40 / 50

Shadow paging has

A no redo B no undo C redo but no undo D neither redo nor undo

DBMS

Q41 / 50

The Oracle RDBMS uses the statement to declare a new transaction start and its properties.

A begin B set transaction C begin transaction D commit

DBMS

Q42 / 50

A graphical or text depiction of the relationship between diﬀerent groups of content on a website is a:

A page template B wireframe C site map D cascading style sheet (css)

DBMS

Q43 / 50

OLAP tools help which type of user?

A Naive users B Application programmers C Analysts/Sophisticated users D DBA only

DBMS

Q44 / 50

What is the attribute closure X+ of a set of attributes X under a set of functional dependencies F?

A The set of attributes that determine X B The set of all functional dependencies derivable from F C The complement of X in the relation schema D The set of ALL attributes that can be functionally determined by X using the FDs in F - used to test if X is a superkey (if X+ = all attributes)

DBMS

Q45 / 50

What is a partial index (also called filtered index) and when is it beneficial?

A An index that only indexes part of the data physically B An index built incrementally over time C An index that includes only rows satisfying a specified condition (WHERE clause) creating a smaller more efficient index for queries with that condition - e.g. CREATE INDEX ON orders(customer_id) WHERE status=pending D An index on a subset of columns

DBMS

Q46 / 50

What is INSERT ON CONFLICT DO UPDATE (UPSERT) in PostgreSQL and how does it work?

A An operation that updates existing rows and inserts new ones in two separate steps B PostgreSQL syntax for upsert: attempts an INSERT and if a conflict on a specified constraint/column occurs updates the existing row instead of failing - atomic single-statement operation C A PostgreSQL-specific error handling mechanism D A constraint that prevents conflicting inserts

DBMS

Q47 / 50

What is data redundancy in the relational model and why is it problematic?

A Having multiple candidate keys in a table B Having multiple indexes on the same table C Storing the same fact multiple times in different places causing wasted storage, inconsistency risk, insertion anomalies, and deletion anomalies D Having backup copies of data

DBMS

Q48 / 50

Which Laravel config file sets database connection settings

A .env only B config/app.php C config/cache.php D config/database.php (reads from .env variables)

DBMS

Q49 / 50

Which best defines data integrity in DBMS?

A Making data available 24/7 B Encrypting data to prevent unauthorized access C Compressing data to save storage space D Ensuring accuracy, consistency, and validity of data throughout its lifecycle

DBMS

Q50 / 50

What is BCNF and how is it stronger than 3NF?

A BCNF is weaker than 3NF B BCNF requires that for every non-trivial FD X to Y, X must be a superkey (no exceptions) while 3NF allows Y to be a prime attribute as an exception C BCNF allows partial dependencies; 3NF does not D BCNF and 3NF are equivalent normal forms

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