Networking, DBMS [Computer Networks (25) + DBMS (25)] — 28 Jul 2026 — Free Online Test

Computer Networks

Q1 / 50

Usually, the network connecting hosts located in several cities or nations is called .

A lan B wan C man D none of them

Computer Networks

Q2 / 50

TCP/IP port number 20 is assigned for .

A telnet B simple mail transfer protocol (smtp) C file transfer protocol protocol (ftp) D trivial file transfer protocol (tftp)

Computer Networks

Q3 / 50

Leaf-spine architecture is

A 2-tier fat-tree for low latency data center B Bus topology C 3-tier traditional D Ring topology

Computer Networks

Q4 / 50

What is Amazon Kuiper

A Protocol Kuiper B Physical Kuiper C Security Kuiper D Amazon LEO broadband satellite constellation

Computer Networks

Q5 / 50

What is SIEM correlation rule

A Protocol rule B Logic combining events to detect attack patterns C Physical rule D Security rule

Computer Networks

Q6 / 50

Cat-M1 (LTE-M) supports

A Protocol mobility B Static devices only C Voice and mobile IoT D Physical mobility

Computer Networks

Q7 / 50

Terraform plan does

A Show current state B Deploy changes C Destroy resources D Show changes before applying

Computer Networks

Q8 / 50

What is event-driven automation

A Physical automation B Security automation C Protocol automation D Triggering automation based on network events

Computer Networks

Q9 / 50

What is DMVPN Phase 2

A Security phase B Protocol phase C Spoke-to-spoke tunnels after NHRP resolution D Physical phase

Computer Networks

Q10 / 50

MTBF formula for availability

A MTTR / MTBF B MTBF - MTTR C MTBF / (MTBF + MTTR) D MTTR + MTBF

Computer Networks

Q11 / 50

SNMP uses transport

A UDP B ICMP C TCP D Both TCP and UDP

Computer Networks

Q12 / 50

HTTP/3 QPACK is header compression replacing

A HPACK optimized for QUIC B HPACK C LZ77 D Huffman

Computer Networks

Q13 / 50

ICMP is primarily used for

A error and diagnostic functions B addressing C forwarding D none of the above

Computer Networks

Q14 / 50

Multi-mode fiber modal dispersion is caused by

A Connector loss B Signal loss C Multiple light modes taking different paths D Wavelength variation

Computer Networks

Q15 / 50

What is CGNAT

A Protocol CGN B Security CGN C Physical CGN D Carrier-grade NAT at ISP level for large-scale IPv4 sharing

Computer Networks

Q16 / 50

CAB stands for

A Critical Advisory Board B Control Access Board C Change Advisory Board D Change Access Board

Computer Networks

Q17 / 50

OFDMA key advantage over OFDM is

A Longer range B Multi-user frequency division in single channel C Better modulation D Higher modulation

Computer Networks

Q18 / 50

Man-in-the-middle attack can endanger security of Diffie-Hellman method if two parties are not

A Authenticated B Joined C Submit D Separate

Computer Networks

Q19 / 50

VMware NSX-T supports

A ESXi only B KVM only C Multiple hypervisors KVM ESXi and containers D Windows Hyper-V only

Computer Networks

Q20 / 50

What is mean time to respond (MTTR)

A Physical MTTR B Average time from detection to containment C Security MTTR D Protocol MTTR

Computer Networks

Q21 / 50

Star topology advantage over bus topology is

A Simpler routing B Fewer cables C Individual link failure isolates to one device D Cheaper

Computer Networks

Q22 / 50

What is OSI reference model purpose today

A Protocol purpose B Framework for understanding troubleshooting and teaching networks C Physical purpose D Security purpose

Computer Networks

Q23 / 50

What is Lamport logical clock purpose

A Capturing event causality in distributed systems B Physical purpose C Protocol purpose D Security purpose

Computer Networks

Q24 / 50

Autonomous System is

A Internet backbone B A single switch C Group of networks under single administration D A single router

Computer Networks

Q25 / 50

Zigbee mesh extends range by

A Physical extension B Devices acting as routers to relay messages C Direct connections only D Protocol extension

DBMS

Q26 / 50

The operation of moving from ﬁner- granularity data to a coarser granularity (by means of aggregation) is called a

A rollup B drill down C dicing D pivoting

DBMS

Q27 / 50

REVOKE command

A Creates privileges B Removes privileges C Grants all privileges D Drops a user

DBMS

Q28 / 50

The system has entered an undesirable state (for example, deadlock), as a result of which a transaction cannot continue with its normal execution. This is

A read error B boot error C logical error D system error

DBMS

Q29 / 50

Who interact with the system without writing a program:

A Naïve users B Casual users C Sophisticated user D All of these

DBMS

Q30 / 50

Sort-Merge Join requires

A Both relations hashed B Both relations sorted on join attribute C One relation fits in memory D Indexes on join columns

DBMS

Q31 / 50

Referential integrity requires

A Primary keys to be unique B Foreign key values to match existing primary key values in referenced relation C All attributes non-null D Tuples to be ordered

DBMS

Q32 / 50

A is a logical grouping of database objects, usually to facilitate security, performance, or the availability of database objects such as tables and indexes.

A tablespace B segments C extents D blocks

DBMS

Q33 / 50

What is the difference between conceptual, logical, and physical ER models?

A Conceptual ER: high-level diagram with entities and relationships only (no attributes or keys), technology-agnostic, used for stakeholder communication. Logical ER: adds attributes, primary/foreign keys, cardinality, normalization, still DBMS-agnostic. Physical ER: DBMS-specific implementation (actual table names, data types, indexes, constraints, partitioning) B Conceptual is for developers, logical for DBAs, physical for managers C They are three names for the same ER diagram at different zoom levels D They represent three different database systems to choose from

DBMS

Q34 / 50

Fill factor in index creation specifies

A Number of indexes allowed B Percentage of each index page to fill leaving space for future inserts C Size of each page D Maximum rows indexed

DBMS

Q35 / 50

A(n) can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or a message.

A message digest B message summary C encrypted message D none of the mentioned

DBMS

Q36 / 50

What is a deadlock graph visualization and how does it help in diagnosing production deadlock issues?

A A graph showing query execution times B A graph showing database query costs C A graph of database connection patterns D A visual representation of transactions as nodes and lock wait relationships as directed edges; cycles indicate deadlocks; helps identify: which transactions are involved which specific rows/tables are the contention points what SQL statements caused conflicts and patterns suggesting application-level fixes

DBMS

Q37 / 50

What does it mean for two sets of FDs F and G to be equivalent?

A F can derive all FDs in G AND G can derive all FDs in F - meaning they generate the same closure F+ = G+ B They have the same number of FDs C They contain the same FDs D They apply to the same relation schema

DBMS

Q38 / 50

What is BCNF and how is it stronger than 3NF?

A BCNF is weaker than 3NF B BCNF requires that for every non-trivial FD X to Y, X must be a superkey (no exceptions) while 3NF allows Y to be a prime attribute as an exception C BCNF allows partial dependencies; 3NF does not D BCNF and 3NF are equivalent normal forms

DBMS

Q39 / 50

What is the difference between a PL/SQL stored procedure and a stored function?

A Functions are always faster than procedures B Procedures can return multiple values; functions cannot return anything C Stored procedure: a named block that executes logic and may return values via OUT/IN OUT parameters called with EXECUTE/CALL cannot be used in SQL expressions. Stored function: MUST return a single value via RETURN can be called from within SQL expressions (SELECT WHERE) and is side-effect restricted in SQL contexts D Functions are compiled; procedures are interpreted

DBMS

Q40 / 50

CTE advantages over subqueries include

A Always faster B Requires fewer privileges C Cannot be recursive D Improved readability and can be referenced multiple times in same query

DBMS

Q41 / 50

Which is a duplicate copy of a ﬁle program that is stored on a diﬀerent storage media than the original location:

A concurrency B deadlock C backup D recovery

DBMS

Q42 / 50

What is database auditing and what are the key events that should be audited?

A Testing database performance metrics B Performing regular backups of the database C Recording and monitoring database activities for security analysis compliance and forensics; key events to audit: all DDL changes privilege grants/revokes failed login attempts access to sensitive tables (PII financial) privileged user actions and unusual query patterns D Performing annual database design reviews

DBMS

Q43 / 50

The relation with primary key can be created using

A create table instructor (id, name) B create table instructor (id, name, primary key(name)) C create table instructor (id, name, primary key (id)) D create table instructor ( id unique, name )

DBMS

Q44 / 50

Which of the following is not an integrity constraint?

A not null B positive C unique D check ‘predicate’

DBMS

Q45 / 50

The condition allows a general predicate over the relations being joined.

A on B using C set D where

DBMS

Q46 / 50

Which one of the following can be treated as a primary key in teaches relation?

A id B semester C sec_id D year

DBMS

Q47 / 50

We indicate roles in E-R diagrams by labeling the lines that connect ___________ to __________

A Diamond , diamond B Rectangle, diamond C Rectangle, rectangle D Diamond, rectangle

DBMS

Q48 / 50

The purpose of view level abstraction is to

A Speed up queries B Hide physical storage details C Simplify user interaction by showing only relevant parts of database D Create indexes

DBMS

Q49 / 50

What is the difference between optimistic concurrency control (OCC) and pessimistic concurrency control (PCC)?

A PCC allows dirty reads; OCC prevents them B OCC uses MVCC; PCC uses physical locks C OCC is always faster; PCC is always safer D PCC: locks data when accessed to prevent concurrent modifications (assume conflicts will occur); OCC: no locks during execution validates at commit time for conflicts (assume conflicts are rare) aborts if conflict detected - OCC better for low-contention workloads PCC better for high-contention

DBMS

Q50 / 50

Which one of the following cannot be taken as a primary key?

A id B register number C dept_id D street

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